Demon117
- 162
- 1
I understand that it is important for two eigenvectors to be orthogonal, but what is it exactly about mutually exclusive states that makes them orthogonal?
facenian said:they don't have to be orthogonal because if they were when you express one of then in the orthogonal base of the other observable you would get a null vector
Fredrik said:It's not entirely clear to me what he meant by "mutually exclusive". If it refers to the states corresponding to different results of the same measurement, then the theorem above is the answer. But he might have been talking about zero transition probability, and in that case, the statement is kind of trivial, once we understand what it says.
The probability that a system prepared in state |\psi\rangle will end up in state |\phi\rangle after a measurement of an observable that has |\phi\rangle as the only eigenvector corresponding to some specific result, is |\langle\phi|\psi\rangle|^2. He could mean that |\psi\rangle and |\phi\rangle are mutually exclusive if that probability is 0. That would of course imply that these state vectors are orthogonal.