Why cosine wave for phase deviation in phase modulation?

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Phase modulation (PM) maintains a constant amplitude of the carrier while varying its phase based on the modulating signal. The phase deviation, which is the change in the carrier phase from its unmodulated state, is directly proportional to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating voltage. The discussion highlights that while the modulating signal is typically a sine wave, the phase deviation is represented as a cosine wave due to the nature of vector rotation in modulation analysis. The cosine function represents the real component, while the sine function represents the imaginary component, leading to a 90-degree phase shift in certain analyses.

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asitiaf
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Phase modulation is a system in which the amplitude of the modulated carrier is kept constant, while its phase and rate of phase change are varied by the modulating signal.
By the definition of phase modulation, the amount by which the carrier phase is varied from its unmodulated value, called the phase deviation, is made proportional to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating voltage.
The rate at which this phase variation changes is equal oy the modulating frequency.
But in the book, i see that modulating signal is a sine wave, but the curve for phase deviation is cosine wave. Why?
 
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asitiaf said:
Phase modulation is a system in which the amplitude of the modulated carrier is kept constant, while its phase and rate of phase change are varied by the modulating signal.
By the definition of phase modulation, the amount by which the carrier phase is varied from its unmodulated value, called the phase deviation, is made proportional to the instantaneous amplitude of the modulating voltage.
The rate at which this phase variation changes is equal oy the modulating frequency.
But in the book, i see that modulating signal is a sine wave, but the curve for phase deviation is cosine wave. Why?

Could you upload scans of these figures? That would make it easier for us to explain what is going on...
 
I don't see how a 90 degree phase shift would be introduced. If the modulating voltage is zero, and it is really phase modulation, then the phase deviation would be zero unless there is some shift introduced that you are not mentioning. Maybe it is frequency modulation?
 
When modulation is analysed as a vector rotation, the real component is the cosine while the imaginary component is the sine of the modulation angle. This may be why it is more natural to employ the cosine than the sine in the analysis of the modulation.
 
If book is showing phase modulation using VCO, the tuning voltage (which is in phase with freq) will be 90 degree shifted from phase (integral of frequency).

This is speculation though since OP has not posted the figures.
 
Last edited:
Most likely this can only be answered by an "old timer". I am making measurements on an uA709 op amp (metal can). I would like to calculate the frequency rolloff curves (I can measure them). I assume the compensation is via the miller effect. To do the calculations I would need to know the gain of the transistors and the effective resistance seen at the compensation terminals, not including the values I put there. Anyone know those values?

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