Accidently
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I have a puzzle when I study the hybrid inflation model.
Suppose we have two scalar fields, \phi_1 and \phi_2
first, let's consider the situation where they are in their independent potentials
V(\phi_i)=m_i^2\phi_i^2, i = 1,2
with initial value
\phi_i^{ini}
We can solve the scalar dynamic equations for them. And they are both in harmonic oscillation. This is Okay.
But when a 'mixing term' \lambda^2 \phi_1\phi_2 is introduced, \phi_1 and \phi_2 get infinite values, if \lambda is large. This can be showed numerically. What I thought is the large mixing term would lead to \phi_1 = \phi_2. So why it goes to infinite?
And we can rotate \phi_1 and \phi_2 to a basis where there is no mixing term. In this basis, we would not get infinite values for \phi_1 or \phi_2. So it seems I get a different result working in different basis. What is the problem
Suppose we have two scalar fields, \phi_1 and \phi_2
first, let's consider the situation where they are in their independent potentials
V(\phi_i)=m_i^2\phi_i^2, i = 1,2
with initial value
\phi_i^{ini}
We can solve the scalar dynamic equations for them. And they are both in harmonic oscillation. This is Okay.
But when a 'mixing term' \lambda^2 \phi_1\phi_2 is introduced, \phi_1 and \phi_2 get infinite values, if \lambda is large. This can be showed numerically. What I thought is the large mixing term would lead to \phi_1 = \phi_2. So why it goes to infinite?
And we can rotate \phi_1 and \phi_2 to a basis where there is no mixing term. In this basis, we would not get infinite values for \phi_1 or \phi_2. So it seems I get a different result working in different basis. What is the problem