- #1
Poly1
- 32
- 0
In my book/course we always assume $\log(f(x)) = \log(g(x)) \implies f(x) = g(x)$.
Could someone explain why this is true? Usually f(x) and g(x) are polynomials.
Could someone explain why this is true? Usually f(x) and g(x) are polynomials.