FOIWATER
Gold Member
- 434
- 12
why does this integral:
double integral (x+y) dA , A is the area bounded by the triangle with vertices (0,0) (0,1) (1,0)
equal 1/3
While this one, (x-y) dA , A is the area bounded by the same vertices
equal 0?
(not looking for the math, already worked them out, just looking for some logic behind why the second one would be zero).
Thanks!
double integral (x+y) dA , A is the area bounded by the triangle with vertices (0,0) (0,1) (1,0)
equal 1/3
While this one, (x-y) dA , A is the area bounded by the same vertices
equal 0?
(not looking for the math, already worked them out, just looking for some logic behind why the second one would be zero).
Thanks!