Why Don't Positive Charges from a Pith Ball Move to a Negatively Charged Rod?

  • Thread starter Thread starter BlackMelon
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Ball Phenomena
AI Thread Summary
Positive charges from a pith ball do not move to a negatively charged rod due to the nature of electric forces and charge distribution. The interaction between the charges leads to polarization rather than direct transfer, resulting in attraction without neutralization. The negative charges on the rod repel the negative charges in the pith ball, while the positive charges are attracted, but this does not lead to a complete transfer. Understanding the roles of positive and negative charges is crucial in explaining this phenomenon. The discussion highlights the importance of charge interactions in electrostatics.
BlackMelon
Messages
43
Reaction score
7
Hello guys,

I'm curious in this phenomena: http://www.beaconlearningcenter.com/documents/492_01.pdf. In the second case, why don't the positive charges from pit ball move to the rod which is full of negative charges. If this happened, we would get a neutral rod and a negative pith ball... But why didn't??

Thank you
 
Physics news on Phys.org
This looks like a homework assignment so the question would be why do think it won't happen?

What are negative charges in this case? And what are positive charges? Perhaps that will give you a clue as to why things happen one way and not another.
 

Thread '1:1 versus 2:1 Mechanical Advantage debate'

The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
View full post »

Thread 'Newton's first law?'

Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
View full post »
Thread 'Beam on an inclined plane'

Thread 'Beam on an inclined plane'

Hello! I have a question regarding a beam on an inclined plane. I was considering a beam resting on two supports attached to an inclined plane. I was almost sure that the lower support must be more loaded. My imagination about this problem is shown in the picture below. Here is how I wrote the condition of equilibrium forces: $$ \begin{cases} F_{g\parallel}=F_{t1}+F_{t2}, \\ F_{g\perp}=F_{r1}+F_{r2} \end{cases}. $$ On the other hand...
View full post »

Similar threads

B Problems I Have With Electrostatics and Pith Ball Experiments
Replies
10
Views
4K
Why Does a Pith Ball Get Charged by a Plastic Rod but Not by an Electrophorus?
Replies
7
Views
2K
Hanging pith balls on a thread...charge, Fg, Fe and tension
Replies
2
Views
3K
Intro to Electromagnetism: five conceptual questions
Replies
3
Views
2K
Why Is Potential Higher at the Positive End of a Conducting Rod?
Replies
3
Views
4K
How does the transfer of electric forces between two objects work
Replies
3
Views
3K
Why Is the Potential Infinite at the End of a Charged Rod?
Replies
4
Views
2K
Why is the electric force the negative of the position derivative of EPE?
Replies
5
Views
1K
B How is surface charge accumulated?
Replies
36
Views
6K
Do Electrons Travel from the Positive to the Negative Terminal in a Battery?
Replies
11
Views
3K

Hot Threads

Recent Insights

Back
Top