Why Explore the Bohmian Interpretation of Quantum Mechanics?

jostpuur
Messages
2,112
Reaction score
19
Why Bohmian interpretation? It's now one and half year after I took my first course on quantum mechanics, and I've already started liking it the way it is. I have trouble seeing any motivation for deterministic theory. Is there any reasons to study the Bohmian interpretation? (I haven't studied it myself at all yet, except I've checked the wikipedia's article briefly.)

(btw. I couldn't have missed Demystifier's eagerness of talking about Bohmian interpretation here.)
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Actually, the main motivation for Bohmian interpretation is NOT the determinism. Instead, the main motivation is to have some sort of objective physical reality that exists even without measurements or observations. However, the structure of the Schrodinger equation for a wave function written in the polar form suggests the deterministic Bohmian interpretation as the most "natural" interpretation, given the similarity with an analogous mathematical structure in classical mechanics written in the Hamilton-Jacobi form. Thus, the determinism appears as a bonus, not necessarily as a part of the original desire.
 
jostpuur said:
Why Bohmian interpretation? It's now one and half year after I took my first course on quantum mechanics, and I've already started liking it the way it is. I have trouble seeing any motivation for deterministic theory. Is there any reasons to study the Bohmian interpretation? (I haven't studied it myself at all yet, except I've checked the wikipedia's article briefly.)

1. Science has the purpose of predicting experimental results.

2. In order to predict an experimental result you need the assumption of determinism, you have to assume there is a reason why you've got that experimental result.

3. There are experimental results that are not predicted by QM (the exact moment of decay of an unstable nucleus, the place on the screen where a particle will be detected in a double slit experiment, etc.).

From 1, 2, 3 -> we need a fundamental, deterministic theory underlying standard QM, which is a statistical theory.

Bohm's interpretation might be the first step towards the development of such a fundamental theory.

Assuming things happen without a cause is not science.
 
ueit said:
1. Science has the purpose of predicting experimental results.

Assuming things happen without a cause is not science.
Although I am an adherent of the Bohmian deterministic interpretation, I do not completely agree with these statements. First, the purpose of science is not only to predict, but also to make observations and to note down systematically the knowledge obtained by observations. Second, the stochastic theory and the theory of probability, which do not study possible causes of things happening, are also scientific theories. Finally, even if we accept that the ultimate purpose of science is to understand the ultimate causes, a possibility that such causes do not exist is not unscientific and cannot be excluded.
 
Demystifier said:
Actually, the main motivation for Bohmian interpretation is NOT the determinism. Instead, the main motivation is to have some sort of objective physical reality that exists even without measurements or observations. However, the structure of the Schrodinger equation for a wave function written in the polar form suggests the deterministic Bohmian interpretation as the most "natural" interpretation, given the similarity with an analogous mathematical structure in classical mechanics written in the Hamilton-Jacobi form. Thus, the determinism appears as a bonus, not necessarily as a part of the original desire.

This seems quite good answer. I don't know how to strike it down :wink: It seems reasonable to want to have "objective physical reality". Altough this didn't convince me of Bohmian interpretation. I think it is actually good thing that we have philosophical problems conserning quantum theory, because as long as a theory is not trying to tell too clearly what reality is, there is a good chance it is not completely wrong.
 
Demystifier said:
Instead, the main motivation is to have some sort of objective physical reality that exists even without measurements or observations.

This is what I personally don't like about the approach. In fact it doesn't make much sense to me.

To me "reality" is formed by interactions/measurements/observatons. And that is thus inherently relative, but that does not mean it doesn't exist connections between the views. And to a certain extent, these connections are at least less relative.

I don't even understand how you can define something that you've never interacted with. It sounds almost a bit religious to me.

I still respect Demystifiers philosophy, but to add the other side, my thinking is that if you never smoked before, don't start now. You don't need it and you will not miss it. I think it's only an addiction you'll have hard time to get rid of :)

/Fredrik
 
Fra said:
To me "reality" is formed by interactions/measurements/observatons.
So do you really believe that Moon is not out there if nobody looks at it?
 
jostpuur said:
I think it is actually good thing that we have philosophical problems conserning quantum theory, because as long as a theory is not trying to tell too clearly what reality is, there is a good chance it is not completely wrong.
So, the best theory is the theory in which it is completely unclear what reality is? Good, then I have a perfect theory. It says that things appear to us as they appear. Indeed, the chance that it is correct is 100%. :smile:
 
  • #10
Fra said:
I don't even understand how you can define something that you've never interacted with. It sounds almost a bit religious to me.
You think like an experimentalist. :smile:
On the other hand, quantum physics is a THEORY. In theory, it is not problem to define something that never interacted with something else. For example, in standard QM, it is not a problem to define a free wave function.

By the way, would you call real two particles that interact between themselves, but never interacted, either directly or indirectly (via other particles), with YOURself? Would you call them real if they interacted with ME, but I never told you about that?
 
  • #11
Demystifier said:
So, the best theory is the theory in which it is completely unclear what reality is? Good, then I have a perfect theory. It says that things appear to us as they appear. Indeed, the chance that it is correct is 100%. :smile:

A theory that explains what reality is, would certainly be even better, but I don't think we are going to get such a theory for some time. It's just too difficult problem.

My point was this: If a theory is not attempting to explain what Reality is, then the theory is not neccecarely wrong. If a theory instead is attempting to explain what Reality is, I can guarantee, it is wrong.

(Edited add:

I just realized this can be understood in many different ways. I truly did have something in mind, that had to do with the current topic. I'll see how this goes, and maybe explain better.)
 
Last edited:
  • #12
Demystifier said:
So do you really believe that Moon is not out there if nobody looks at it?

"Look at" in the litteral sense is of course not a proper extension of the analogy.

I mean that if the moon did not affect us, it wouldn't have a real level of justification beyond anything else.

Of course, you may still choose to incorporate it in your theory if you like, but it would be somewhat arbitrary and not comply to the principle of insufficient reason that serves to minimize unjustified complexity.

We don't have the choice to "not look" at the moon in the proper meaning of the generalisation - we can not choose to ignore the gravity of the moon, and it's other effects. If we didn't actively look at it, it would impact us by deviations cause by our ignorance of it.

I think new structures should ideally be introduced upon justification. It is true that justification when it comes to human mind ma be quite relative, so I can of course not prove that this strategy isn't the best for you or anyone else.

I act based upon the information that reaches me, and when I am wrong I will adjust according to feedback.

/Fredrik
 
  • #13
Demystifier said:
You think like an experimentalist. :smile:

Perhaps, but I am not one. I'm rather more of a philosopher to mind :smile:

I want to maximize logical and philosophical consistency from "theory".

Demystifier said:
On the other hand, quantum physics is a THEORY.

Yes but it's a theory of reality, including the problems and issues it implies. We better deal with it as they reveal themselves.

Demystifier said:
In theory, it is not problem to define something that never interacted with something else. For example, in standard QM, it is not a problem to define a free wave function.

Standard QM is not satisfactory. Within the classical domains, it's a great effective theory, but it has logical and philosophical problems. I'm sure you agree since you like Bohm, but I think we may disagree upon the way to go :wink:

Demystifier said:
By the way, would you call real two particles that interact between themselves, but never interacted, either directly or indirectly (via other particles), with YOURself?

If I understand you correctly, they never ineracted with me in any way, then they do not have a place in my current understanding.

However, if they ever appear to interfere wit me at some later point, they are invited. I believe in evolutionary approach. I think even event spaces may evolve. This is a flaw in the current theory.

Demystifier said:
Would you call them real if they interacted with ME, but I never told you about that?

Well, if you are talking about literally "talking" it's an analogy that's a bit out of context, but if they interact with you, and you interact with me, there is a good chance they have indirectly interacted with me. But wether I have the capacity to respond to everything depends on me. Am I a human or an atom?

/Fredirk
 
  • #14
Demystifier said:
the chance that it is correct is 100%. :smile:

How about asking another question to measure your theory:

What is the chance that your theory will recover from the event it makes one incorrect prediction? What about the physics of the corrective action required to get back on track with reality?

An example from biology. A good organism is one that is adaptive and outperforms it's competitors when it come to adaptions. The organism that happens to be in the lead because it was lucky aren'y likely to make the next turn.

Suppose we have an incident beam of electrons to a hard target. Those foolish electrons don't know how stupid they are to be heading that target. But as soon as they start sensing the target they will readily resolve the situation, one way or the other.

/Fredrik
 
  • #15
jostpuur said:
If a theory instead is attempting to explain what Reality is, I can guarantee, it is wrong.
I disagree. For example, classical mechanics says what reality is. Still, it is not really wrong. Instead, it is only approximately correct. In a similar sense, a realistic modification of standard QM could provide a better approximation, even if this would not be the final theory either.
 
Last edited:
  • #16
> Still, it is not really wrong. It is only imperfect.

If that's the way you see it, ok. But then it leads me to conclude that perfect or not, isn't so much the issue. As long as we know how to improve? Right?

Do we agree there?

Thus, what kind of theory are we looking for to have those properties we look for? My personal conclusion is that it's anything but bohmian mechanics :smile:

/Fredrik
 
  • #17
Fra said:
Standard QM is not satisfactory. Within the classical domains, it's a great effective theory, but it has logical and philosophical problems. I'm sure you agree since you like Bohm, but I think we may disagree upon the way to go :wink:
So, in your opinion, what is the way to go?
You may also vote here:
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=146601

By the way, if I understood you correctly, you say that real is something that interacts with YOU. Isn't it a slightly egocentric definition of reality? Or are you just saying that reality is relative or (as C. Rovelli would say) relational?
 
  • #18
Fra said:
1. If that's the way you see it, ok. But then it leads me to conclude that perfect or not, isn't so much the issue. As long as we know how to improve? Right? Do we agree there?

2. Thus, what kind of theory are we looking for to have those properties we look for?

3. My personal conclusion is that it's anything but bohmian mechanics :smile:
1. Yes, we agree.

2. Nobody knows yet. There are various approaches. Those who look for a realistic theories represent a minority, but it is perhaps interesting to say that one winner of the Nobel Prize also belongs to this minority.

3. Is that really a conclusion, or just an intuition? If it is a conclusion, what is the argument?
 
  • #19
Demystifier said:
So do you really believe that Moon is not out there if nobody looks at it?

To add something to this, I think if every photon, graviton and any other particle coming from the moon and directed towards the Earth did not interact with the Earth in any way, and if that happened for some period of time, then I would have to say, yes, the moon is not there. But the chances of that happening are so minute you may as well say the moon is always there, and is objectively real. I think it's that sort of continuous flow of information between the moon and earth, for example, that tricks us into thinking that there is an objective reality out there.
 
  • #20
Tomsk said:
To add something to this, I think if every photon, graviton and any other particle coming from the moon and directed towards the Earth did not interact with the Earth in any way, and if that happened for some period of time, then I would have to say, yes, the moon is not there. But the chances of that happening are so minute you may as well say the moon is always there, and is objectively real. I think it's that sort of continuous flow of information between the moon and earth, for example, that tricks us into thinking that there is an objective reality out there.
I still do not understand:
Are we just tricked into thinking that it is real, or is it real?
Is the flow of information more real than material objects?
And what about observers falling into a black hole? They cannot send us any information about themselves, so are they real?
 
  • #21
Fra said:
Thus, what kind of theory are we looking for to have those properties we look for? My personal conclusion is that it's anything but bohmian mechanics :smile:
Without new experimental results that would suggest us new ways to go, the only criterion that remains is the internal consistency and simplicity of the theory. In my opinion, non-realistic theories suffer from a problem of being ambiguous (see e.g. the Conclusion in http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0609163 )
which ruins their internal consistency. Among realistic interpretations of QM, the Bohmian one is the simplest one.
 
  • #22
Demystifier said:
Or are you just saying that reality is relative or (as C. Rovelli would say) relational?

Exactly.

Relational is a better word even, as relational can be applied to realism as well.

I am not specifically updated on Rovellis personal philosophy but I know what your asking and yes I'm definitely on the "relational side" of things. Relational concepts doesn't end with spacetime, there is also relational probability theory. And that's what I think is the proper interpretation of QM. Probabilities are always relational, there is IMO no such thing as an absolute probability. A relational probability is a conditional probability. Clearly the probability of any event, will be totally different depending on your prior information. And the whole point is that there isn't really anything like a universal prior. Only relational priors. It also leaves (IMO) the proper theory as intrisically evolutionary.

/Fredrik
 
  • #23
Demystifier said:
Although I am an adherent of the Bohmian deterministic interpretation, I do not completely agree with these statements. First, the purpose of science is not only to predict, but also to make observations and to note down systematically the knowledge obtained by observations.

Sure, there are many activities involved, but the final purpose is to put that knowledge in a logical framework, a scientific theory. If that theory is not falsified, it allows us to understand how things work.

Second, the stochastic theory and the theory of probability, which do not study possible causes of things happening, are also scientific theories.

Sure, but the claim that such theories are fundamental, without a rigorous proof, is not scientific, I think it is even anti-scientific as it stops research in that area.

Finally, even if we accept that the ultimate purpose of science is to understand the ultimate causes, a possibility that such causes do not exist is not unscientific and cannot be excluded.

I disagree. With the exceptions of non-existence proofs (like the proof against squaring the circle) giving up in the face of an unexplained phenomenon is unscientific. In the case of QM, such a proof cannot exist because counterexamples, like BM, exist.
 
  • #24
Demystifier said:
3. Is that really a conclusion, or just an intuition? If it is a conclusion, what is the argument?

To not get into too lengthy arguments here, I'll say it's intuition. But of course it's, I've got argumentations on my own, but that's a lot of philosophy and nothing that would quality as a proof. I just find what I perceived to be the bohmian desires, to be in conflict with the principles of relationism I look for.

I simply see Bohmian as more speculative, and the speculations are not justified from my point of view, and I also don't see what problem they solve. The problem of "objective realism" is IMO not a problem to start with.

My guidlines is that speculations that are inferred using sound reasoning is where I place my bets. This conclusion is maintained until I see reason to change it, at which point I will. Of course if you have a differing opinion, you should follow the path suggested from your perspective.

Long time ago I used to think in deterministic terms and require "realism" in the objective sense. But I have come to see what was wrong with this. It's hard if not impossible(probably so) to be both complete and consistent, and my preferred solution is to increase my completeness in a consistent manner, well aware of that total completenss will never most probably never be acheived.

/Fredrik
 
  • #25
Demystifier said:
Is the flow of information more real than material objects?

IMO, it's manifestations of the same thing. I think the closest thing to reality we get is what patterns we can identify in the information flow we are fed.

Suppose I am informed that there is a wall ahead of me, I can't possibly tell the difference between the information and the supposed reality behind it. It's the same thing.

Or more commonly in everday life, reality is a severe idealisation and simplification of the "real reality" into something more comprehensible.

Clearly there is a possibility that I have been misinformed, and that the concept of this wall is in fact in logical conflict with other information I am also exposed to.

I personally consider information to be more fundamental, and physical interactions are really information exchange. And my opinion is that much more clarity will be found if we find the proper information theoretic abstraction of physics. If you ask me there isn't any doubt it will come, the question is just when.

/Fredrik
 
  • #26
Demystifier said:
Without new experimental results that would suggest us new ways to go, the only criterion that remains is the internal consistency and simplicity of the theory. In my opinion, non-realistic theories suffer from a problem of being ambiguous (see e.g. the Conclusion in http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0609163 )
which ruins their internal consistency. Among realistic interpretations of QM, the Bohmian one is the simplest one.

I agree that QM has logical and philosophical issues. And I think some of these issues are also the causes why there is no consistent theory of quantum gravity. These needs to be solved indeed. And I belong to those who consider them to be fundamental issues, rather than just mathematical issues.

In fact I think it's not really much point in discussing copenhagen interpretation vs bohm. Neither is perfect, and I think it's not just the interpretation that has a problem, it's more fundamental.

I don't have the solution, but I know exactly where I am looking for it.

/Fredrik
 
  • #27
ueit said:
Sure, but the claim that such theories are fundamental, without a rigorous proof, is not scientific, I think it is even anti-scientific as it stops research in that area.

Of course I couldn't care less than to discuss the meaning of the word "scientific" but I take it you mean that there is no benefit in researching stochastic approaches?

I would not draw this conclusion. Thermodynamics is basically a theory partly based on stochastic processes. Is that not scientific?

Quantum mechanics can also be given such interpretations : given constraints and a prior probabiltiy distributions, our optimal guess is a stochastic evolution under certain constraints. And this can in fact give rise to nontrivial dynamics.

Stochastic modelling and probabiltiy theory is also used in artifical intelligence modelling, and game theory, learning rules that has been terribly successful.

/Fredrik
 
  • #28
There's physics and there's physics. Apparently there are many folks, primarily but not entirely non-physicists, who do not understand the basic purpose of physics. That purpose is to develop as good a description of Nature as possible. As we have found over the centuries, a good description allows us to build bridges and airplanes, computers, refrigerators; allows us to know where to point the rocket to get to the moon.

Why things are as they are is generally beyond our comprehension, but gives the philosophically oriented plenty of room for endless speculation.(See post #21 in the thread about photons,. How is light experimentally proven to be a particle? )

I first became acquainted with Bohm's work back in the late 1950s, when I was an undergraduate. When asked, my professors told me that studying Bohm's approach to QM was a waste of time. I completely concur.

In the past 50 years, Bohm's approach has led to no progress in physics, while the conventional QM approach has led to extraordinary progress in atomic, nuclear, solid state, and particle physics. (Most if not all of this progress involves what might be called a modified Copenhagen interpretation, which boils down to Born's idea that the square of the wave function is a probability density. None involves Bohm's interpretation.)

After 50 years of no significant contribution to physics, seems to me that Bohm simply did not get it.

(Fra -- Note that many AI firms, in the heyday of LISP, went belly-up; they ultimately had little to offer. The rise of artificial neural networks(ANN) provided a new and flexible approach to machine learning. ANN firms have had much more success than the "traditional" AI firms. I worked in the ANN field for about 10 years; stochastic modeling was little used -- except, perhaps, in the training of a feed forward network, to insure that the input signals are randomly fed to the network, not exactly a huge problem)

Those who yearn for the certainty of the 19th century will find no satisfaction now, nor in the future.
Regards,
Reilly Atkinson
 
  • #29
reilly said:
In the past 50 years, Bohm's approach has led to no progress in physics, while the conventional QM approach has led to extraordinary progress in atomic, nuclear, solid state, and particle physics. (Most if not all of this progress involves what might be called a modified Copenhagen interpretation, which boils down to Born's idea that the square of the wave function is a probability density. None involves Bohm's interpretation.)

A good point, and probably the main reason why folks like Steven Weinberg (probably our greatest living theorist) pay it little or no attention.

And in all fairness to QM, I think that Bohmians should own up to a simple admission of their own: if there are non-local interactions, why is it that c is so fundamental in the propagation of information and all other cause/effect relationships? This has not been "unambiguously" answered (except maybe in their own minds) ...

P.S. I personally am interested in learning more, however.
 
  • #30
DrChinese said:
And in all fairness to QM, I think that Bohmians should own up to a simple admission of their own: if there are non-local interactions, why is it that c is so fundamental in the propagation of information and all other cause/effect relationships? This has not been "unambiguously" answered (except maybe in their own minds) ...

The existence of the maximum velocity propagation of interactions is the Principal Physical Postulate.
 
  • #31
The status of speed of light beeing the upper bound of information propagation is indeed a postulate in Einsteins theories, however my ambition is that the new approaches will/should explain this.

I don't have any proof yet, but a relational information theoretic approach will (IMHO) probably render an upper bound of information transfer as a kind of statistical result. In that case it's also expected that at the Planck scales lorentz invariance breaks down. The intuitive reason for why this can possibly be so is that if dynamics is considered to be a stochastic evolution, then time is simply an internal parametrization of changes and the upper bound follows from information geometry. And this bound is statistical in nature, and thus can be violated at a certain non-zero probability, and the Planck domain probably frequently, effectively breaking down the spacetime structure.

/Fredrik
 
  • #32
Fra said:
Of course I couldn't care less than to discuss the meaning of the word "scientific" but I take it you mean that there is no benefit in researching stochastic approaches?

No.

I would not draw this conclusion. Thermodynamics is basically a theory partly based on stochastic processes. Is that not scientific?

You misunderstood my position. What I'm saying is that:

1. QM is a very good statistical theory.
2. Being statistical, it fails to predict exactly some experimental results, like the point on the screen where a particle would be detected.
3. It is the duty of science to look for a theory that can account for the above experimental results. Bohmian interpretation might or might not provide a framework for developing such a theory.

Some deny 3. saying that there is no need to assume a cause behind those experimental results. Such view is, IMO, unscientific.

In conclusion, it is good science to work on the theory of thermodynamics. It is not good science to posit that there is no cause behind the motion of a molecule in a gas and there is no reason to look for such a cause because thermodynamics makes good predictions.

In the case of QM, many arguments are put forward to elevate such nonsense to the status of good science (Heisenberg uncertainty, EPR experiments, delayed choice experiments etc.). It is the merit of Bohm to clearly show their failure.
 
  • #33
ueit said:
No.



You misunderstood my position. What I'm saying is that:

1. QM is a very good statistical theory.
2. Being statistical, it fails to predict exactly some experimental results, like the point on the screen where a particle would be detected.
3. It is the duty of science to look for a theory that can account for the above experimental results. Bohmian interpretation might or might not provide a framework for developing such a theory.

Some deny 3. saying that there is no need to assume a cause behind those experimental results. Such view is, IMO, unscientific.

In conclusion, it is good science to work on the theory of thermodynamics. It is not good science to posit that there is no cause behind the motion of a molecule in a gas and there is no reason to look for such a cause because thermodynamics makes good predictions.

In the case of QM, many arguments are put forward to elevate such nonsense to the status of good science (Heisenberg uncertainty, EPR experiments, delayed choice experiments etc.). It is the merit of Bohm to clearly show their failure.

Some points.

I.) A "statistical description" i.e. a probabilistic language is better, not worse than the alternative. We can still indicate certain knowledge of an outcome e.g. [X will occur with 100% probability, Y will occur with 0% probability.] But we can also express those intermediate degrees of knowledge in between. Thus utilizing a statistical language is an expansion of possible physical statements about what we may know about nature rather than a limit.

II.) Science has no duty per se. Science is an epistemological discipline (that of belief based on repeatable empirical test) and it is the duty of the scientist qua scientist to abide by that discipline. The canard about the Moon ceasing to exist when not observed is a total misconception of this principle. The statement about the non-reality of the moon is just as invalid as the statement of its existence. Baring an empirically verified means of prediction the duty-bound scientist would simply state his ignorance of the moon's state of existence between observations.

With this in mind the duty-bound scientist should formulate theories in an operational language and avoid expressing opinions about what cannot be observed. This can be most difficult when those opinions are implicitly integrated into the formal language he uses. One such case is the use of the language of classical states when the effect of observing said states is an open question. (Another is the use of implicit absolute time in discussing relativistic phenomena such as traveling twins.)

II.a) Point (I.) then brings up the question as to whether an accurate physical theory, expressed within a probabilistic language, is possible in which all statements about the empirical behavior of a system can be simultaneously predicted with probabilities of the 100% vs 0% variety. Call this classical determinism or classical completeness. It comes to the same thing when one is attempting to extrapolate future phenomena from past experience (the main purpose of science).

If so then Bell's inequality cannot possibly be violated. Bell's inequality begins by asserting that a physical system has a physical state representable by the selection of one point in a set of possible states. Then all true probabilistic statements about the system must form an additive measure on the set of states. This because each outcome results from the measurement applied to the system in some specific state and hence the probability of that outcome is fixed and must add to the probabilities of that outcome given alternative states.

Since empirically we have observed Bell inequality violation then Classical determinism is disproved and QM is still a viable theory. It is not per se a question of locality. Note that by allowing FTL causal effect in QM you also allow future-to-past effects (assuming Einstein's theory is close to correct) which in turn allows any past observation to be changed in the future. You loose classical determinism anyway and also loose any sense of reality as it is.

III.) Quantum mechanics is causally deterministic: When you ask the question: Can any specific outcome be positively determined? The answer is yes in QM. Set up a specific observable and there is a prior measurement which will tell you with certainty which value will be observed. Even in classical mechanics one implicitly assumes a prior measurement must be made before one can know with certainty the outcome of a later observation. This is true for any choice of outcome provided one understands that the choice of prior measurement must depend on the choice of outcome to be predicted. However QM does not assume that intermediate measurements fail to invalidate this predictability e.g. QM recognizes that observation = interaction.

IV.) It is the concept of the classical "state of the system" which implicitly assumes that all possible measurements may be made simultaneously. Quantum Mechanics relaxes this a priori assumption and allows that the non-commutativity of observables be determined empirically instead of dictated by "religious tradition". One must at the same time reject the concept of state based reality as a non-contingent absolute. Our construction of an ontological reality is that of building a model in our heads wherein phenomena there correspond to empirical phenomena. In transcending the classical description we must put aside the use of ontological models and stick to a wholly phenomenological language of observables and events. This is as hard and counter-intuitive as letting go of absolute time in Special Relativity, if not more difficult. But it is necessary to understanding QM whether you agree with it or not.

V.) The indeterminism of quantum mechanics comes from the logical incompatibility of the sequences of assertions in the relevant experiment.
E.g. that a photon is polarized vertically is logically incompatible with it being left-hand circular polarized. One is not quite asserting both A and Not A but one is making two positive assertions which cannot both be absolutely true.
It is the richer language of QM which provides for more possible inconsistent pairs of assertions than simply "A and not A".

It is the very deterministic nature of quantum mechanics which equates (e.g. for a free photon) that an earlier plane polarization measurement is equivalent to a later one and thus an earlier assertion about plane of polarization is incompatible with a deterministic assertion about a later circular polarization measurement. The only way to reconcile the incompatibility in what we assert must happen with what we may observe in some cases, is to expand our logical language to include probabilities.

One is in QM able to make sets of assertions which are partially incompatible and thus the answers are partially unpredictable. We can nonetheless say more using QM, namely,
* Which observations separated over time are compatible,
and also
* How close two observations are to being compatible in the form of the correlation probabilities.

Regards,
James Baugh
 
  • #34
I think I see what you take issue with.

Thermodynamics was just an example of the success of basic ideas of containing probabilistic reasoning and optimal inference. So from now on I'm not talking about thermodynamics.

ueit said:
In conclusion, it is good science to work on the theory of thermodynamics. It is not good science to posit that there is no cause behind the motion of a molecule in a gas and there is no reason to look for such a cause because thermodynamics makes good predictions.

I think you are referring to a conflict that IMO doesn't exist.

The fact that there are known relations (for example statistical relations) to a certain confidence, does not in the general case exclude the possibility that there exist other relations at some other confidence or scale of observation. I don't think anyone suggested so either. So I think we can agree on that point. Also relations are not static, they evolve.

For example, thermodynamics does of course not say that there is no cause behind the motion of molecules.

Also a false inference would be that, because today we have a complete theory that within all our confidence levels perfectly describes all of nature suggest that there exists no further structures tomorrow. This is of course not so IMO.

ueit said:
In the case of QM, many arguments are put forward to elevate such nonsense to the status of good science (Heisenberg uncertainty, EPR experiments, delayed choice experiments etc.). It is the merit of Bohm to clearly show their failure.

There are several kinds of uncertainties, some can be said to be due to logical entanglements. Some states of data are simply logically incompatible.

The uncertainty between momentum and position is a logical one. If you ask yourself the questions, what is position and what is momentum at a deeper level, you might find that they are relations in different eventspaces, and there exists a connection between them. Stating a probability distribution in one space, induces a prior chance in the connected space as well. The HUP can IMO best be interpreted as a kind of logical entanglement in informationspaces. There are som fuzzy points to get there though, involving spacetime.

Other things has to do with resolution of data. No object has infinite storage capacity and thus this renders several implications on things. The information is updated all the time, but since objects can't just store it all, it has to update it's state as per some logic.

Simple starting out in a setting where we can have complete information (infinite storage capacity) and that we never have to handle conflicting information, both in dynamics and prior information states is completely unrealistic IMO and idealises away several fundamental blocks of reality.

/Fredrik
 
  • #35
In addition to the comments out there. I can add one point of critics to ordinary QM.

I do not find it realistic that the complete even space is mapped out at the outset of any interactions, and that then time is basically a unitary evolution. That just doesn't make sense to me. It would require complete/"infinite" experience, and complete/"infinite" storage capacity. And I think that is not satisfied by any observer in the universe.

The problem is that this doesn't allow a true event space expansions from first principles, unless you sort of manually put in the concept of the family of possible event space expansions from start, but that's cheating. This is a logical or philosophical problem that are somtimes put forward by those who doesn't like the probabilistic approach, and I share this, but I think there is a solution.

To speak again for my own personal views, what I look for is a new relational information theoretic approach and even the event spaces themselves are dynamical. The dice we play with is evolving as well. The reason for this is that I see not logically consistent way to define a univeral observer invariant dice during realistic conditions. The "dice" is as much part of the dynamical evolution as anything else, leaving it complex, but I see great hope.

/Fredrik
 
  • #36
Then the principles of optimal inference implies that our "dice" is autoadjusting so that while our dice keeps changing, we always have an optimum dice. And optimum here is defined relative to priors and information storage etc. "Human dices" are simply ungraspable for subatomic particles, but they might be said ot have their own dices.

So we make progress with absolute minimal assumptions. The dice notation is just to symbolise that we construct a dice out of the uncertainty and say that at some point we have a range of options and we have no reason to buy one over the other, that defines and forms our dice.

/Fredrik
 
  • #37
There was some confusion about the concept "objective physical reality". Perhaps "classical reality" gives a better intuitive idea of what this terminology was after for? To me complex amplitudes of standard QM and measurements processes themselves could as well be objective physical reality, so it wasn't really my point to try to say that we shouldn't know about reality. Instead my point was, that we should be ready to accept the fact that reality can be confusing (temporarily at least).

Talking about scientifical way, demanding that the nature is of a some specific kind doesn't seem very scientifical either.
 
  • #38
Hmm... I would like to say what I suspect is a common misconception about "probabilistic techniques". To state a probability distribution, is not by far the same thing as to say that there can never be found further mechanisms. This need not be so.

Like jambaugh also touched, instead I think the proper way to think of these approaches, is as higher order extension to basic boolean(true/dalse) logic, bayesian logic, where the support for each statement is quantified. This allows for development of a scientific theory of "revision updates". Where the update is made on basis of current support with minimal ad hoc guesswork included. Data will guide us.

But current QM doesn't explore this full beauty. It has some old classical probability basis that deserves critics. I of course suspect we will see how this change as a consistent QG gravity is developed :wink:

Unlike those people who are more guided by "mathematical beauty" alone, I consider myself pretty philosophically inclined person and I put high emphasis on logical and philosophical consistency of theories and I have come to conclude for myself that this is the best way. I claim that these relational information models are not just "mathematical theories", they are rather IMO more deeply satisfactory on the philosophical level as well and far less speculative, and no ad hoc approach - thus IMO rendering it very scientific. Some of the weirdness is in fact not that weird after all. It's only weird if you try to understand it with a old style realistic mindset.

/Fredrik
 
  • #39
reilly said:
In the past 50 years, Bohm's approach has led to no progress in physics, while the conventional QM approach has led to extraordinary progress in atomic, nuclear, solid state, and particle physics. (Most if not all of this progress involves what might be called a modified Copenhagen interpretation, which boils down to Born's idea that the square of the wave function is a probability density. None involves Bohm's interpretation.)
This is like saying that the undeniable progress in applied nuclear physics, which does not involve the hypothesis that protons and neutrons consist of quarks, while no applied science so far involved quarks, implies that the theory of quarks is a waste of time.
Nobody denies the phenomenological success of the conventional QM. Nevertheless, the Bohmian interpretation is compatible with it. The main goal of the Bohmian interpretation is not to provide an alternative to the conventional QM, but to understand the origin of QM at a deeper, more fundamental level. Just like the main goal of the theory of quarks is not to provide an alternative to conventional nuclear physics, but to understand the origin of nuclear physics at a deeper, more fundamental level.
Even if one day we find evidence that the Bohmian interpretation is correct, one does not expect that it will influence the practical phenomenological use of QM in conventional branches of physics such as atomic, nuclear, and solid state physics. Just as now existing evidence that quarks do exist did not influence the conventional nuclear physics.
 
  • #40
DrChinese said:
And in all fairness to QM, I think that Bohmians should own up to a simple admission of their own: if there are non-local interactions, why is it that c is so fundamental in the propagation of information and all other cause/effect relationships? This has not been "unambiguously" answered (except maybe in their own minds) ...
That is true. The Bohmian interpretation has not unambiguously answered this question. However, the conventional interpretation has not unambiguously answered some other fundamental questions, which the Bohmian interpretation has. An example closely related to your question above is:
If physics is local, why is it that wave function is a nonlocal object that cannot be replaced by a local one?

Both interpretations have some advantages and some disadvantages.
 
Last edited:
  • #41
Demystifier said:
That is true. The Bohmian interpretation has not unambiguously answered this question. However, the conventional interpretation has not unambiguously answered some other fundamental questions, which the Bohmian interpretation has. Both interpretations have some advantages and some disadvantages.

I think this is very accurate. I don't think we'd have these "feisty" discussions if one of the interpretations answered everything. Each gives us a somewhat uncomformtable piece of baggage to deal with.

Yet we all appreciate the underlying science, regardless of the correct interpretation.
 
  • #42
Some points.

I.) A "statistical description" i.e. a probabilistic language is better, not worse than the alternative. We can still indicate certain knowledge of an outcome e.g. [X will occur with 100% probability, Y will occur with 0% probability.] But we can also express those intermediate degrees of knowledge in between. Thus utilizing a statistical language is an expansion of possible physical statements about what we may know about nature rather than a limit.

OK.

II.) Science has no duty per se.

Sure, I meant something like “in the sphere of science” as opposed to “in the sphere of philosophy”. I’ve seen quite often the argument that asking for a reason why a certain particle was detected in a certain place is not a scientific question, but a philosophical one.

Science is an epistemological discipline (that of belief based on repeatable empirical test) and it is the duty of the scientist qua scientist to abide by that discipline. The canard about the Moon ceasing to exist when not observed is a total misconception of this principle. The statement about the non-reality of the moon is just as invalid as the statement of its existence. Baring an empirically verified means of prediction the duty-bound scientist would simply state his ignorance of the moon's state of existence between observations.

With this in mind the duty-bound scientist should formulate theories in an operational language and avoid expressing opinions about what cannot be observed. This can be most difficult when those opinions are implicitly integrated into the formal language he uses. One such case is the use of the language of classical states when the effect of observing said states is an open question. (Another is the use of implicit absolute time in discussing relativistic phenomena such as traveling twins.)

OK.

II.a) Point (I.) then brings up the question as to whether an accurate physical theory, expressed within a probabilistic language, is possible in which all statements about the empirical behavior of a system can be simultaneously predicted with probabilities of the 100% vs 0% variety. Call this classical determinism or classical completeness. It comes to the same thing when one is attempting to extrapolate future phenomena from past experience (the main purpose of science).

OK

If so then Bell's inequality cannot possibly be violated.

False.

Bell's inequality begins by asserting that a physical system has a physical state representable by the selection of one point in a set of possible states.

Since empirically we have observed Bell inequality violation then Classical determinism is disproved and QM is still a viable theory.

It also begins by asserting that the particle source and the two detectors must be independent of each other. A theory in which the spin of the entangled particles is a function of detector’s state could violate Bell’s inequality while still not denying classical determinism.

It is not per se a question of locality.

I agree. Any mechanism that denies the assumption of statistical independence between the experimental parts of an EPR experiment could violate Bell. The mechanism can be either local (the source extrapolates future detectors’ state from their past state arrived at the speed of light) or non-local (function collapse).

Note that by allowing FTL causal effect in QM you also allow future-to-past effects (assuming Einstein's theory is close to correct) which in turn allows any past observation to be changed in the future. You loose classical determinism anyway and also loose any sense of reality as it is.

I’m not so sure about this. I think it is possible to simulate relativity on an absolute frame of reference and still retain classical determinism. However, I think that the non-locality of QM is rather an illusion produced by an underlying local mechanism, somehow similar with the non-local gravity of Newton being based on the local GR mechanism.

III.) Quantum mechanics is causally deterministic: When you ask the question: Can any specific outcome be positively determined? The answer is yes in QM. Set up a specific observable and there is a prior measurement which will tell you with certainty which value will be observed. Even in classical mechanics one implicitly assumes a prior measurement must be made before one can know with certainty the outcome of a later observation. This is true for any choice of outcome provided one understands that the choice of prior measurement must depend on the choice of outcome to be predicted. However QM does not assume that intermediate measurements fail to invalidate this predictability e.g. QM recognizes that observation = interaction.

I agree.

IV.) It is the concept of the classical "state of the system" which implicitly assumes that all possible measurements may be made simultaneously. Quantum Mechanics relaxes this a priori assumption and allows that the non-commutativity of observables be determined empirically instead of dictated by "religious tradition".

Yes, but this is because QM works with statistical entities that may not exist per se. In thermodynamics we also see such concepts like temperature, pressure specific heat and so on.

One must at the same time reject the concept of state based reality as a non-contingent absolute. Our construction of an ontological reality is that of building a model in our heads wherein phenomena there correspond to empirical phenomena. In transcending the classical description we must put aside the use of ontological models and stick to a wholly phenomenological language of observables and events.

I strongly disagree. “Putting aside the use of ontological models” does not allow one to get pass statistics and relate experimental observations (the spot produced by an electron on a screen) with the prior state without appealing to chance. “it just happens” is not science.

This is as hard and counter-intuitive as letting go of absolute time in Special Relativity, if not more difficult. But it is necessary to understanding QM whether you agree with it or not.

I disagree that such a sacrifice is necessary. See above.


V.) The indeterminism of quantum mechanics comes from the logical incompatibility of the sequences of assertions in the relevant experiment.
E.g. that a photon is polarized vertically is logically incompatible with it being left-hand circular polarized.

It is not necessary to see a logical incompatibility here. It depends on how one understands spin. In BM, for example, spin is not in intrinsic property of a particle. The indeterminism is probably related with incomplete knowledge of the state.

It is the very deterministic nature of quantum mechanics which equates (e.g. for a free photon) that an earlier plane polarization measurement is equivalent to a later one and thus an earlier assertion about plane of polarization is incompatible with a deterministic assertion about a later circular polarization measurement. The only way to reconcile the incompatibility in what we assert must happen with what we may observe in some cases, is to expand our logical language to include probabilities.

I think that logic works just fine as it is.

Regards,
Andrei Bocan
 
  • #43
ueit said:
OK.
It also begins by asserting that the particle source and the two detectors must be independent of each other. A theory in which the spin of the entangled particles is a function of detector’s state could violate Bell’s inequality while still not denying classical determinism.

I hope you didn't mean "theory" but rather circumstance. If such dependence is necessary "in theory" for all such cases then you again violate classical determinism. The initial preparation of the detectors is forced to depend causally on the later interaction of the particles with the detector. They thus cannot be considered to have been in an "initial state".

Once you assert than you can establish the independence of the source and detectors then any Bell inequality violation in this circumstance denies classical determinism. This is the experiment which has been performed.

If you construct a combined state manifold for all the equipment involved then you again get Bell's inequality on any distributions of outcomes. Classical determinism dictates that probabilities of outcomes form measures on the state manifold of the large system in question. Bell's inequality is just a convoluted way to say that the probabilities form a measure on sets of states. Given a measure you have a metric on set differences and this satisfies the triangle inequality aka Bell's inequality.
 
  • #44
ueit said:
OK.
I strongly disagree. “Putting aside the use of ontological models” does not allow one to get pass statistics and relate experimental observations (the spot produced by an electron on a screen) with the prior state without appealing to chance. “it just happens” is not science.

Not "it just happens" but "if this happens" then "that is likely to happen with probability p". That is all science can ever say and it doesn't need an ontological model to say it. It does take models to say it succinctly but those models need not be fundamentally ontological. We can use nouns to describe electrons as long as we understand that at the foundational level:
"and electron is a process of quantized charge and mass transport" or some other phenomenological description.

What's more ontological models are the most natural conceptually, we evolved using them. In doing chemistry we don't need to get into philosophical debates about the "reality of the proton" it is contingently real and objective. This contingency is on our staying in the domain of chemistry.

Where I see the issue as important is in the attempts to build a fundamental theory of everything by starting with an ontological construct e.g. strings. One should begin elsewhere... out of time... more later.
Regards,
JB
 
  • #45
ueit said:
OK.
I think that logic works just fine as it is.
But one must be careful not to commit category errors and confuse the logic of statements about a physical system (which presupposes an act of measurement) and logical statements about what we know about a system (e.g. statements about what measurements have been or will be made.)

We can assert that we have both determined the z-component of spin of an electron and (later) determined the z'-component of spin. This is a statement about what we have done in a lab. But the statements about an electron; that the z component is +1/2 and that the z'-component is +1/2, are incompatible (in QM) as both cannot be asserted simultaneously (said simultaneity implicit in the objective language).

This incompatibility is apparent at the previously used higher level of abstraction. In a physical theory it is implied by a statement about the system that the determination of that statement has also been made, (or at list can be made). Since both determinations cannot be made simultaneously or in such a way that each doesn't preclude the other then the two statements themselves are incompatible since the meta-statement that both statements have been tested is "anti-tautological" or always false.

The logic is fine when used correctly. But for example parsing the EPR experiment without playing close attention to the levels of abstraction and the use of counterfactual assumptions leads one to headaches and insanity.

The specific confusion in this case is the improper identification of the two statements:
"We can predetermine the outcome of any measurement of one half of an EPR pair" (by making the corresponding measurement of the other half)
with
"We can predetermine the outcome of every measurement of one half of an EPR pair".

Once you choose to make one such measurement then any assumption which is inconsistent with having made that choice, is either meaningless or must presuppose we have jumped into a different instance of the system and thereby making the original assumption invalid.

Regards,
J. Baugh
 
  • #46
jambaugh said:
I hope you didn't mean "theory" but rather circumstance. If such dependence is necessary "in theory" for all such cases then you again violate classical determinism. The initial preparation of the detectors is forced to depend causally on the later interaction of the particles with the detector. They thus cannot be considered to have been in an "initial state".

By "theory" I mean a hypothetical local hidden variable theory of the type you claim it has been proven impossible to exist.

I claim that it is possible that the source (a calcium atom in a PDC) generates a pair of entangled photons with the spin being a function of the future detector orientation, which is extrapolated from the data available at the present moment (this is possible in principle if the detectors are deterministic systems)

Let me give you an example. If NASA wants to launch a ship to Mars it will not launch towards the present position of Mars but towards its extrapolated position at the time the ship is expected to arrive there. In this case would you say that this space mission violates classical determinism because "the initial preparation" of the rocket "depends causally on the later" encounter with the planet?

Once you assert than you can establish the independence of the source and detectors then any Bell inequality violation in this circumstance denies classical determinism.

I wouldn't assert such a thing in a fully deterministic system. It is an assumption that may or may not be true. I tend to think it is not true.

This is the experiment which has been performed.

I disagree.
 
  • #47
So far, we have been discussing arguments for the Bohm deterministic interpretation within the nonrelativistic QM. These can be viewed as traditional arguments. However, in the case of relativistic QM, there is an even stronger reason to introduce a deterministic interpretation. This is because the conventional probabilistic interpretation in the case relativistic QM is simply inconsistent. See e.g. Secs. 7. and 8. of
http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0609163
as well as
http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0307179
http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0406173
For a "non-philosophical" formal derivation of the field/string Bohmian equation of motion from the requirement of relativistic covariance see also
http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/0407228
http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/0601027
http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/0512186
 
  • #48
It is interesting that, whenever I use a non-philosophical argument supporting the Bohmian interpretation as in my last post above, the opponents of the Bohmian interpretation suddenly get silent.
 
  • #49
Perhaps not everyone knows all the math, but i also think it takes more effort to read x number of papers and then response in detail :)

That's why I didn't read and reply.

Actually parts of the bohmian formalism, and deal with amplitude and phase separately has appealed to me as well. I fiddled with that some time ago. I am reevaluating the formalism myself, and I am not sure that the final ultuimate formalism will be the complex amplitude approach. Maybe there are others that have merits.

The complex phase i actually interesting, although I may not like the bohmian notion and his philosophy. For the same reason I choose not to spend very much time analysing alternatives, givne limited time. but of course if the predictions are the same, it no more right or wrong than anything else. But I tihnk for bohmian notion to get more attention the approache needs to take things further and solve things the ortodox approach doesn't.

I've realized the same thing for myself, I'm not going to convince anyone with fuzzy arguments, the remaining choice is to try and work out a proof that solves problems not yet solved. That alone takes a decent amount of time.

/Fredrik
 
  • #50
In my humble opinion, Fra, you are ascribing reality to mathematical ideas. There's no complex phase, no wave function, no phase space. They do not have any objective reality so analysing them in detail will take you further from reality, not closer.
 
Back
Top