Dismiss Notice
Join Physics Forums Today!
The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

Why is a QM wave function not normalizable

  1. Feb 9, 2007 #1
    In quantum mechanics, why is a wave function not normalizable if it always has the same sign as its second derivative?
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 10, 2007 #2

    Meir Achuz

    User Avatar
    Science Advisor
    Homework Helper
    Gold Member

    In 1D, if f"/f is positive, the function curves away from the x axis.
    To be normalizable, it must in some region curve toward the x axis.
  4. Feb 12, 2007 #3


    User Avatar
    Science Advisor
    Homework Helper

    Your question doesn't make (too much) sense, since a wave function is a complex (generally with a nonzero imaginary part) valued function and to say that [itex] a+ib >0 [/itex] makes no sense.
Share this great discussion with others via Reddit, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook