Why is a QM wave function not normalizable

  • Thread starter Ed Quanta
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In quantum mechanics, why is a wave function not normalizable if it always has the same sign as its second derivative?
 

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Meir Achuz
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In 1D, if f"/f is positive, the function curves away from the x axis.
To be normalizable, it must in some region curve toward the x axis.
 
  • #3
dextercioby
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In quantum mechanics, why is a wave function not normalizable if it always has the same sign as its second derivative?
Your question doesn't make (too much) sense, since a wave function is a complex (generally with a nonzero imaginary part) valued function and to say that [itex] a+ib >0 [/itex] makes no sense.
 

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