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Why is a QM wave function not normalizable

  1. Feb 9, 2007 #1
    In quantum mechanics, why is a wave function not normalizable if it always has the same sign as its second derivative?
     
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  3. Feb 10, 2007 #2

    Meir Achuz

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    In 1D, if f"/f is positive, the function curves away from the x axis.
    To be normalizable, it must in some region curve toward the x axis.
     
  4. Feb 12, 2007 #3

    dextercioby

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    Your question doesn't make (too much) sense, since a wave function is a complex (generally with a nonzero imaginary part) valued function and to say that [itex] a+ib >0 [/itex] makes no sense.
     
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