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## Main Question or Discussion Point

In quantum mechanics, why is a wave function not normalizable if it always has the same sign as its second derivative?

- Thread starter Ed Quanta
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In quantum mechanics, why is a wave function not normalizable if it always has the same sign as its second derivative?

Meir Achuz

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To be normalizable, it must in some region curve toward the x axis.

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Your question doesn't make (too much) sense, since a wave function is a complex (generally with a nonzero imaginary part) valued function and to say that [itex] a+ib >0 [/itex] makes no sense.In quantum mechanics, why is a wave function not normalizable if it always has the same sign as its second derivative?

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