ted.hb Messages 3 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Aug 14, 2014 #1 Why do we use inertia in rotational motion and not the whole mass of an object ?
Doc Al Mentor Messages 45,589 Reaction score 2,481 Aug 14, 2014 #2 ted.hb said: Why do we use inertia in rotational motion and not the whole mass of an object ? What do you mean? Do you mean rotational inertia? (Moment of inertia.) If so, realize that rotation and translation have their differences.
ted.hb said: Why do we use inertia in rotational motion and not the whole mass of an object ? What do you mean? Do you mean rotational inertia? (Moment of inertia.) If so, realize that rotation and translation have their differences.
ShayanJ Science Advisor Insights Author Messages 2,802 Reaction score 605 Aug 14, 2014 #3 I remember any introductory text on the subject gives enough arguments and calculations! Grant R. Fowles' Analytical mechanics is enough I think.
I remember any introductory text on the subject gives enough arguments and calculations! Grant R. Fowles' Analytical mechanics is enough I think.
Pythagorean Science Advisor Messages 4,430 Reaction score 327 Aug 14, 2014 #4 The moment of inertia is a calculation that does consider the whole mass of the object, as well as some information about the distribution of the mass about the rotational axis.
The moment of inertia is a calculation that does consider the whole mass of the object, as well as some information about the distribution of the mass about the rotational axis.