htown1397
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Homework Statement
Hi, I've been working on this for a while but I just can't seem to figure this out. I have to solve a problem regarding a one-dimensional two-particle wavefunction psi(x1, x2, t) that is normalized at t=0, and the particles are not in spin. I have to show that the wavefunction remains normalized for all time. I would appreciate any help.
The Attempt at a Solution
I know that to normalize, Integral[|psi(x1, x2, t)|^2] =1. So, I have written out the wavefunction, how I think it is, for a two particle system:
(1/a) Sin[(n*Pi*x)/(2*a)]*Sin[(m*Pi*y)/(2*a)]*Exp[-I*w*t]
Then, I went ahead and found the complex conjugate and multiplied it by the original wavefunction. I tried to integrate it on mathematica from -Infinity to Infinity, but it said the integral does not converge.