Why Is the Photon One-Point Function Zero in QED?

taishizhiqiu
Messages
61
Reaction score
4
In 'an introduction to quantum field theory' by peskin, he writes: To analyze the photon one-point function, note that the external photon must be attached to a QED vertex. Neglecting the external photon propagator, this amplitude is therefore:

upload_2015-10-1_16-44-37.png


I really cannot justify this equation. Can anyone explain it to me?
 
Intuitively, the expression is essentially the diagram with the two fermion lines and vertex (by definition of j_{\mu}). Note the, "neglecting the external photon propagator." If you include the photon propagator as a factor, the expression gives rise to the same diagram as if the current were to be replaced by the photon field, i.e. the photon one-point correlation function.
 
Toponium is a hadron which is the bound state of a valance top quark and a valance antitop quark. Oversimplified presentations often state that top quarks don't form hadrons, because they decay to bottom quarks extremely rapidly after they are created, leaving no time to form a hadron. And, the vast majority of the time, this is true. But, the lifetime of a top quark is only an average lifetime. Sometimes it decays faster and sometimes it decays slower. In the highly improbable case that...
I'm following this paper by Kitaev on SL(2,R) representations and I'm having a problem in the normalization of the continuous eigenfunctions (eqs. (67)-(70)), which satisfy \langle f_s | f_{s'} \rangle = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{2}{(1-u)^2} f_s(u)^* f_{s'}(u) \, du. \tag{67} The singular contribution of the integral arises at the endpoint u=1 of the integral, and in the limit u \to 1, the function f_s(u) takes on the form f_s(u) \approx a_s (1-u)^{1/2 + i s} + a_s^* (1-u)^{1/2 - i s}. \tag{70}...

Similar threads

Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
3K
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
3K
Replies
1
Views
2K
Back
Top