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Homework Statement
First of all, I'm encountering this problem in a Calc 2/Sequences and Series class, so I havn't taken Diff. Eq's yet. Also, I've never used latex before so I'm iffy on it, but all the sigmas are from n = 0 to infinity. Here's the problem statement:
The Bessel function of order 1 is defined by
\jmath_{1}(x) = \sum \frac{(-1)^{n}x^{2n+1}}{n!(n+1)!2^{2n+1}}
Show that \jmath_{1}(x) satisfies the differential equation
x^{2}\jmath_{1}''(x) + x\jmath_{1}'(x) + (x^{2} - 1)\jmath_{1}(x) = 0
Homework Equations
Simply differentiating \jmath_{1}(x) twice:
\jmath_{1}'(x) = \sum \frac{(-1)^{n} (2n+1) x^{2n}}{n! (n+1)! 2^{2n+1}}
\jmath_{1}''(x) = \sum \frac{(-1)^{n} (4n^{2}+2n) x^{2n-1}}{n! (n+1)! 2^{2n+1}}
The Attempt at a Solution
Being very unsure of where to start, I simply plugged in the series into the equation - since they all have a common denominator I figured the answer would appear.
\sum \frac{(x^{2}(-1)^{n}(4n^{2}+2n)x^{2n-1})+(x(-1)^{n}(2n+1)x^{2n})+((x^{2}-1)(-1)^{n}x^{2n+1})}{n!(n+1)!2^{2n+1}}
Now gathering and setting aside terms of (-1)^n and x^(2n+1)
\sum \frac{(-1)^{n}x^{2n+1}(4n^{2}+4n+x^{2})}{n!(n+1)!2^{2n+1}}
Is this the correct way to approach this problem? Am I supposed to prove that this converges to 0 for all x (and how would I do that?)? Am I way off-base?