Zakon Vol 1, Ch2, Sec-6, Prob-19 : Cardinality of union of 2 sets

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving by induction that if finite sets A and B have m and n elements respectively, then if A ∩ B = ∅, the union A ∪ B contains m + n elements. The proof is structured with a basis step and an inductive step, confirming that the assertion holds true for all finite sets under the given conditions. The participants clarify the correct interpretation of the number of subsets of A, emphasizing that A has 2m subsets, not 2m.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of mathematical induction
  • Familiarity with set theory concepts such as union and intersection
  • Knowledge of finite sets and their properties
  • Basic algebraic manipulation and notation
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the principles of mathematical induction in depth
  • Explore set theory, focusing on operations like union and intersection
  • Learn about the properties of subsets, specifically the formula for the number of subsets of a set
  • Review examples of proofs involving finite sets and their cardinalities
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Students studying discrete mathematics, educators teaching set theory, and anyone interested in mathematical proofs and induction techniques.

dawoodvora
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Homework Statement




Show by induction that if the fi nite sets A and B have m and n elements,
respectively, then
(i) A X B has mn elements;
(ii) A has 2m subsets;
(iii) If further A \cap B = \varphi, then A \cup B has m+ n elements.

NOTE : I am only interested in the (iii) section of the problem. Section (i) and (ii), I was able to solve albeit with some help.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


Here is the attempt at the solution

I am using mathematical induction to solve the query.

P(n) : |A| = m, |B| = n; |A \cup B| = m + n if A \cap B = \varphi.

Basis Step:

P(n = 1) to be proven as true.

Let A = { a1, a2,...am} => |A| = m
Let B = {b1} => |B| = 1

Now A \cup B = {a1, a2,...am,b1}
|A \cup B| = m + 1 elements, since A and B are disjoint(given) Thus P(1) holds true.
Basis Step is proven.

Let us redefine B = {b1, b2, ..., bk, bk+1} => |B| = k+1.
Also |A \cap B| = \varphi
Now consider Bk = {b1, b2,..., bk} => Bk \subset B, |Bk| = k

Inductive hypothesis:
Assume P(k) holds true for n = k i.e.,

|A \cup Bk| = m + k, when A \cap Bk = \varphi

Inductive Step:

Bk \subset B => B = Bk \cup {bk+1}
A \cup B = A \cup (Bk \cup {bk+1}) = (A \cup Bk) \cup {Bk+1} = m + k + 1 = m + (k + 1) => P(k+1) holds true. Thus Induction is complete.

Somehow, I am not convinced with the solution that I have attempted. Please let me know if I am missing something.
 
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dawoodvora said:

Homework Statement

Show by induction that if the finite sets A and B have m and n elements,
respectively, then
(i) A X B has mn elements;
(ii) A has 2m subsets;
This is wrong. What you have written is 2 times m while, in fact, A has 2m subsets. If you don't want to use LaTeX (as you have below) use 2^m.

(iii) If further A \cap B = \varphi, then A \cup B has m+ n elements.

NOTE : I am only interested in the (iii) section of the problem. Section (i) and (ii), I was able to solve albeit with some help.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


Here is the attempt at the solution

I am using mathematical induction to solve the query.

P(n) : |A| = m, |B| = n; |A \cup B| = m + n if A \cap B = \varphi.

Basis Step:

P(n = 1) to be proven as true.

Let A = { a1, a2,...am} => |A| = m
Let B = {b1} => |B| = 1

Now A \cup B = {a1, a2,...am,b1}
|A \cup B| = m + 1 elements, since A and B are disjoint(given) Thus P(1) holds true.
Basis Step is proven.

Let us redefine B = {b1, b2, ..., bk, bk+1} => |B| = k+1.
Also |A \cap B| = \varphi
Now consider Bk = {b1, b2,..., bk} => Bk \subset B, |Bk| = k

Inductive hypothesis:
Assume P(k) holds true for n = k i.e.,

|A \cup Bk| = m + k, when A \cap Bk = \varphi

Inductive Step:

Bk \subset B => B = Bk \cup {bk+1}
A \cup B = A \cup (Bk \cup {bk+1}) = (A \cup Bk) \cup {Bk+1} = m + k + 1 = m + (k + 1) => P(k+1) holds true. Thus Induction is complete.

Somehow, I am not convinced with the solution that I have attempted. Please let me know if I am missing something.
That's correct but seems overly complicated. If A and B have no members in common, A\cup B contains every member of A and B- thus has m+ n members.
 

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