Zeeman Effect - average shift is zero?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the Zeeman Effect, specifically focusing on the first order shift in energy and the degeneracy after perturbation. The original poster expresses confusion regarding the average shift in energy, questioning how it can be zero despite calculations suggesting otherwise.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the contributions of different degeneracies associated with angular momentum states and their weights in calculating the average energy shift. There is a focus on understanding how the average perturbation can result in zero despite individual shifts not being zero.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring the implications of different weights assigned to angular momentum states. Some guidance has been offered regarding the weights of the states, and there is an ongoing examination of the conditions under which the average shift can be zero.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of angular momentum in quantum mechanics, particularly in the context of the Zeeman Effect. There is an acknowledgment of the need to consider multiple angular momenta in the problem setup.

unscientific
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Homework Statement



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Part (a):Find the first order shift in energy
Part(b): What is the degeneracy after perturbation? Find Show average shift in energy is zero.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



I've shown part (a), the troubling part is part (b).

Part (b)
With the perturbation, the degeneracy is lifted. Hence degeneracy = 0.

For ##j=l+\frac{1}{2}##, shift is ##\Delta E_+ = \frac{1}{4}mc^2 \alpha^4\frac{(l+\frac{1}{2})(l+\frac{3}{2}) - l(l+1) - \frac{3}{4}}{n^3 l(l+\frac{1}{2})(l+1)}##

For ##j=l-\frac{1}{2}##, shift is ##\Delta E_- = \frac{1}{4}mc^2 \alpha^4\frac{(l-\frac{1}{2})(l+\frac{1}{2}) - l(l+1) - \frac{3}{4}}{n^3 l(l+\frac{1}{2})(l+1)}##.

The total perturbation is given by the sum of positive perturbation and negative perturbation:

\delta E= \Delta E_+ + \Delta E_-
\delta E = \frac{mc^2 \alpha^4}{2n^3 l}

Clearly, the average perturbation for a given n and l is not zero. How does it even become zero then?
 
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j = l + 1/2 and j = l - 1/2 have different degeneracies. They contribute different weights to the average.
 
Last edited:
dauto said:
j = l + 1/2 and j = i - 1/2 have different degeneracies. They contribute different weights to the average.

Each has a weight of ##2l-1##?
 
unscientific said:
Each has a weight of ##2l-1##?

No, they have weights 2j+1 for two different values of j
 
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dauto said:
No, they have weights 2j+1 for two different values of j

Oh yeah, because when two angular momenta ##j_1## and ##j_2## are combined, each state in ##J = j_1 + j_2## ranges from -J to +J in steps of 1.

I keep forgetting that this is a two-angular momentum problem, not a simple one with only spin.

\delta E = (2j_+ +1)\Delta E_+ + (2j_- +1)\Delta E_-

I worked it out, and it appears to be zero.
 
Last edited:

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