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proof for exponentials

 
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Mar14-06, 02:44 AM   #1
 

proof for exponentials


hello, I need the proof to show that:
[tex]
e^x = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} (1+x/n)^n
[/tex]

Here's what I was able to come up with so far:
since the derivative of [tex]e^x[/tex] is also [tex]e^x[/tex],

then let f(x) = [tex]e^x[/tex]
thus:
D(f(x)) = [tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \frac{f(x+h) - f(x)}{h} = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \frac{e^{x+h} - e^x}{h} = e^x\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \frac{e^h - 1}{h}[/tex]

so for the derivative of [tex]e^x[/tex] to equal itself,
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \frac{e^h - 1}{h} = 1[/tex]

so for small values of h, we can write:
[tex]e^h - 1 = h[/tex]
and so
[tex] e = (1+h)^{1/h}[/tex]

Replacing h by 1/n, we get:
[tex] e = (1 + 1/n)^n[/tex]
As n gets larger and approaches infinity, we get:
[tex]e = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} (1+1/n)^n[/tex]

so, how do I get:
[tex]
e^x = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} (1+x/n)^n
[/tex]

Also, is it true that:
[tex](1+x/n)^n \leq e^x[/tex] and
[tex](1-x/n)^n \leq e^{-x}[/tex] for every natural n and every x element of X?
How can I prove this?

thanks!
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Mar14-06, 05:28 AM   #2
 
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Quote by island-boy
hello, I need the proof to show that:
[tex]
e^x = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} (1+x/n)^n
[/tex]
...
thanks!
Have you tried the Binomial theorem ?
Mar14-06, 08:59 AM   #3
 
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I would've taken the expression for e and raised both sides to the x power.

so for small values of h, we can write:
You really ought to do this more rigorously...

P.S. many of the limits in your limits are wrong.
Mar14-06, 09:08 AM   #4
 
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proof for exponentials


As a hint, set 1/u=x/n, and re-express in terms of u and x.
Mar15-06, 12:31 AM   #5
 
Quote by Hurkyl
I would've taken the expression for e and raised both sides to the x power.


You really ought to do this more rigorously...

P.S. many of the limits in your limits are wrong.
which one of the limits are wrong?

I was able to prove that:
[tex] (1 + x/n)^n \leq e^x [/tex] and [tex] (1 - x/n)^n \leq e^{-x} [/tex]

Using the Taylor expansion for [tex]e^x[/tex], I got

[tex]e^x = 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^3}{3!} + ...[/tex]
which means
[tex]e^x \geq 1 + x[/tex]
subtituting x by x/n, I get
[tex]e^{x/n} \geq 1 + x/n[/tex]
thus
[tex]e^{(x/n)n} \geq (1 + x/n)^n[/tex]
simplifying, I get:
[tex]e^x \geq (1 + x/n)^n [/tex]

Similarly I used the Taylor Expnansion to prove that
[tex]
e^x = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} (1+x/n)^n
[/tex]

since [tex]e^x = 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^3}{3!} +...[/tex]

and using binomial theorem for [tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} (1+x/n)^n[/tex]
I got:
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}1^n + \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} x + \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \frac{n(n-1)(x^2)}{(n^2)(2!)} + \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)(x^3)}{(n^3)(3!)} + \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)(x^4)}{(n^4)(4!)} + ...

= 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^3}{3!} +...

=e^x
[/tex]

these correct?
Mar15-06, 01:19 AM   #6
 
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You've used n-->infinity in expressions that don't even have an n in them! (You meant h-->0)
Mar15-06, 02:40 AM   #7
 
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See this thread posts # 3 and 12.

I take it that your definition for [tex]e^x[/tex] is the Taylor series about x=0, viz.

[tex]e^x=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^k}{k!}[/tex]
Mar15-06, 02:44 AM   #8
 
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Essentially, this

Quote by benorin
That [tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} (1+\frac{x}{n})^n = e^x[/tex] may be proven as follows:

by the binomial theorem,

[tex](1+\frac{x}{n})^n = \sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}\left( \frac{x}{n}\right) ^{k} = \sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{n!}{(n-k)!}\frac{1}{n^{k}} \frac{x^k}{k!}\rightarrow \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{x^k}{k!}=:e^{x}\mbox{ as }n\rightarrow\infty[/tex]

since [tex] \frac{n!}{(n-k)!}\frac{1}{n^{k}} \rightarrow 1 \mbox{ as }n\rightarrow\infty[/tex]

although there are some uniform convergence issues to be handled when taking the limit of the above sum...
and this,

Quote by benorin
This is not rigorous, but it works...

[tex] \frac{n!}{(n-k)!} = \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)\cdots (n-(k-1))(n-k)!}{(n-k)!} =n(n-1)(n-2)\cdots (n-(k-1))[/tex]

counting the number of terms in the above product: it goes n-0 through n-(k-1) so there are (k-1)-0+1 = k terms so we know that the leading term will be nk when the product is expanded, and hence

[tex] \frac{n!}{(n-k)!} = n^k + \mbox{ some polynomial of degree k-1 in }n[/tex]

or rather

[tex] \frac{n!}{(n-k)!}\frac{1}{n^{k}} \rightarrow 1 \mbox{ as }n\rightarrow\infty[/tex]
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