binbagsss said:
Okay so if I'm correct, Hubbles red-shift relationship was first established via expecting a doppler shift - a change in the observed wavelength (perspective of reciever at the time of reception) with respect to that emitted (perspective of the emitter), caused solely due to the respective motion between the two bodies.
It is true that the observed redshift was interpreted as a recessional velocity, which is totally valid. It's valid to say, "that galaxy is moving away from us." In fact, "all galaxies beyond a certain distance appear to be moving away from us." So, in this sense, it is a shift in the wavelength of light due to relative motion, just like the Doppler shift. What is different about this redshift is that the
cause of this recession is cosmic expansion, and as a result, the
Special Relativistic Doppler shift relation between redshift and recessional velocity is not obeyed. Instead, there is a different relation between redshift and recessional velocity: it is not subject to Special Relativity and can even exceed c. We have an FAQ about this: https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=508610
binbagsss said:
However the cosmological red-shift was then dedcuded via the fact that a correlation between the distant of the galaxy and the recession velocity was sufficiently significant.[/I]
This "correlation" that you're talking about is Hubble's Law, and it was discovered right from the get go. Edwin Hubble discovered that all galaxies appear to be moving away from us,
and that the recessional velocity appears to increase linearly with the distance to the galaxy. The discovery of the "correlation" wasn't something that came later. It also wasn't long before people realized that Hubble's Law was consistent with a
uniform expansion in which every point in the universe moves away from every other point.
binbagsss said:
My questions are:
- Is it correct that if the red-shift was solely down to the doppler shift, such a correlation would not be expected following the cosmological principle - all red-shifts observed, if data is collected on a wide enough scale would cancel due to the isotropy and homogenity tof the universe?
See my first paragraph above. Many prefer to think of cosmological redshift as occurring because of an expansion
OF space itself that carries the source and observer apart, rather than due to any motion
through space of those objects. It's an interpretation that is consistent with the observations. In fact, we can think of two components of the relative motion of a distant galaxy: the component that is due to being carried along with the uniform expansion, which is referred to as the "Hubble flow", and a second random component, which is due to the motion of that galaxy through space, relative to us. This second component is known as the peculiar velocity. Redshifts cannot "cancel out", but I think that what you are asking is the following: if the universe were not expanding, and the only observed Doppler shifts were due to peculiar motions of galaxies, then would we statistically expect to see just as many galaxies to be blueshifted as redshifted? The answer to that question is yes. There would be no "net" or "bulk" flow in that scenario.
binbagsss said:
-However, I also thought that Ho was determined via taylor expansion, and so assuming sufficiently small distances/redshifts , such that all terms can be neglected expect the first one giving arise to the linear relationship.
But these two seem to contradict one another?
Thanks very much anyone who can shed some light on this.
I think you mean that
Hubble's law is determined by Taylor expansion, not the constant H
0, that appears in it. And the answer is no, Hubble's Law is not determined by Taylor expansion. Hubble's Law is v = H
0d, where d is the proper distance to an object, and v is the rate of change of that proper distance with cosmic time. This linear relation is always true in the case of a uniform expansion. What is determined by Taylor expansion is the Newtonian (non-relativistic) Doppler shift formula for redshift in terms of recessional velocity: v= cz. This linear relation is not true, it's just an approximation that holds for low values of z. As you alluded to, the true relationship between redshift and velocity contains higher order terms. It is a result of cosmic expansion, and therefore depends on the details of the dynamics of the universal expansion, which depends on your cosmological model.
It is true that Hubble assumed v = cz in interpreting redshifts as velocities, and
arriving at Hubble's law. I would have to refresh my memory by running some numbers, but I think the redshifts out to which v = cz is a valid approximation still correspond to
cosmological distance scales, much larger than the distances at which the Hubble flow begins to dominate over peculiar motions. That's why his assumption worked (meaning that he was able to draw the right conclusion: Hubble's Law). That's also my explanation for why there is no "contradiction" of the type you were worried about.
EDIT: This doesn't seem like homework, so I'm moving it to the Cosmology discussion forum.