How Do You Calculate the New Diameter Needed to Reduce Pressure in a Pipe?

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To calculate the new diameter needed to reduce pressure in a pipe, the problem involves applying Bernoulli's equation and the continuity equation. The initial conditions include a pipe diameter of 1.80 cm and a pressure of 144 kPa, with water flowing at 2.30 L/s. The goal is to reduce the pressure to 101 kPa by constricting the pipe. The calculations show a discrepancy in the expected diameter, which should be 1.50 cm, indicating potential errors in unit conversion or application of the equations. Ensuring consistent units and correctly applying the area formula for circular cross-sections is crucial for accurate results.
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Homework Statement


The pressure in a section of horizontal pipe with a diameter of 1.80 cm is 144 kPa. Water flows through the pipe at 2.30 L/s. If the pressure at a certain point is to be reduced to 101 kPa by constricting a section of the pipe, what should the diameter of the constricted section be?


Homework Equations


p1 + 1/2pv^2 = p2 + 1/2pv^2

A1V1=A2V2

A=pi*r^2

The Attempt at a Solution


convert .0023 m^3 to velocity
.0023/((.018^2)*pi) = velocity is 2.26

144*(10^3) +.5(1000)(2.26)^2=101*(10^3)+.5*(1000)v^2
v=9.54 m/s

(.018^2)*pi*.0023=9.54*A
A=2.45x10^-7 m^2

2.54x10^-7=pi*r^2
r=2.79x10^-4
x2--> diameter=5.59x10^2 cm
 
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The answer is supposed to be 1.50 cm. I seem to only get answers 10^-2. Thanks for any help!
 
I'm having the same problem. I understand that Pascals is in units of N/m^2, but because the velocity is in m^3/s, rather than m/s, how can you use Bernoulli's equation? The units don't work.
 
Go back here [ (.018^2)*pi*.0023=9.54*A ] and realize that 0.018 m is the diameter.

Remember the area of the circle is given by \pi\,r^2\,=\,\pi{d^2}/4.

Make sure the units are consistent and that one does not mix SI with cgs.

The flow is given in volumetric flow rate Q, which is the product of the cross-sectional area and the mean flow velocity perpendicular to the cross-sectional area.

And realize the OP is Nov-07, so that the HW is long turned in.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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