mathfied
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hi all, my first post; had a minor headache with this problem lol.
PROBLEM 1:
Finding Residue:
-----------------
find Res(g,0) for g(z) = z^{-2}coshz
My Attempt/Solution:
-----------------
I know coshz = 1 + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{z^4}{4!} ...
so now z^{-2}coshz = z^{-2} (1 + \frac{z^2}{2!} + \frac{z^4}{4!} ... ) = \frac{1}{z^2} + \frac{z^2}{2!z^{2}} + \frac{z^4}{4!z^{2}} ... = \frac{1}{z^2} + \frac{1}{2!} + \frac{z^2}{4!}
we know the residue is the coefficient of the -1th term (or the coefficient of z^{-1}) but there is no -1th term as you can see. So does that mean the residue is 0, or am I missing something?
PROBLEM 2:
Finding Integral:
----------------------------
Evaluate by integrating around a suitable closed contour:
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{cos3x}{x^2 + 4}
My Attempt/Solution:
-----------------
First consider the intergral,
I_R = \int_{\gamma^R} \frac{e^{3iz}}{(z+2i)(z-2i)}dz where \gamma^R = \gamma^R_1 + \gamma^R_2 and \gamma^R_1 = \{|z| = R , Im(z) > 0\} and \gamma^R_2 = \{z = Re(z) , -R\leq z \leq R\}
Now, let g(z) = \frac{e^{3iz}}{(z+2i)(z-2i)}. The integrand has 2 simple poles, one at 2i and one at -2i. Only 2i is inside the contour so:
Res(g,2i) = \lim_{z \to 2i}\frac{(z-2i)e^{3iz}}{(z+2i)(z-2i)} = \lim_{z \to 2i}\frac{e^{3iz}}{(z+2i)} = \frac{e^{-6}}{4i}
By Cauchy's Residue Theorem, we have:
I_R = (2\pi i)\frac{e^{-6}}{4i} = \frac{\pi e^{-6}}{2}
To show that \int_{\gamma^R_1}g(z)dz \to 0, R \to \infty, we apply Jordan's Lemma : M(R) \leq \frac{1}{R^2-4}.
So now this means, \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{cos3x}{x^2 + 4} = \frac{\pi e^{-6}}{2}
Please could you verify whether I have worked these out correctly. Thanks a great deal, highly appreciated :).
PROBLEM 1:
Finding Residue:
-----------------
find Res(g,0) for g(z) = z^{-2}coshz
My Attempt/Solution:
-----------------
I know coshz = 1 + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{z^4}{4!} ...
so now z^{-2}coshz = z^{-2} (1 + \frac{z^2}{2!} + \frac{z^4}{4!} ... ) = \frac{1}{z^2} + \frac{z^2}{2!z^{2}} + \frac{z^4}{4!z^{2}} ... = \frac{1}{z^2} + \frac{1}{2!} + \frac{z^2}{4!}
we know the residue is the coefficient of the -1th term (or the coefficient of z^{-1}) but there is no -1th term as you can see. So does that mean the residue is 0, or am I missing something?
PROBLEM 2:
Finding Integral:
----------------------------
Evaluate by integrating around a suitable closed contour:
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{cos3x}{x^2 + 4}
My Attempt/Solution:
-----------------
First consider the intergral,
I_R = \int_{\gamma^R} \frac{e^{3iz}}{(z+2i)(z-2i)}dz where \gamma^R = \gamma^R_1 + \gamma^R_2 and \gamma^R_1 = \{|z| = R , Im(z) > 0\} and \gamma^R_2 = \{z = Re(z) , -R\leq z \leq R\}
Now, let g(z) = \frac{e^{3iz}}{(z+2i)(z-2i)}. The integrand has 2 simple poles, one at 2i and one at -2i. Only 2i is inside the contour so:
Res(g,2i) = \lim_{z \to 2i}\frac{(z-2i)e^{3iz}}{(z+2i)(z-2i)} = \lim_{z \to 2i}\frac{e^{3iz}}{(z+2i)} = \frac{e^{-6}}{4i}
By Cauchy's Residue Theorem, we have:
I_R = (2\pi i)\frac{e^{-6}}{4i} = \frac{\pi e^{-6}}{2}
To show that \int_{\gamma^R_1}g(z)dz \to 0, R \to \infty, we apply Jordan's Lemma : M(R) \leq \frac{1}{R^2-4}.
So now this means, \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{cos3x}{x^2 + 4} = \frac{\pi e^{-6}}{2}
Please could you verify whether I have worked these out correctly. Thanks a great deal, highly appreciated :).
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