Spivak's Calculus, 5(x) - Use (ix) backwards

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Spivak's Calculus, 5(x) -- "Use (ix) backwards..."

Homework Statement


Prove the following:
(x) If a,b\geq0 and a^{2}<b^{2}, then a<b. (Use (ix), backwards.)



Homework Equations



(ix) If 0 \leq a<b, then a^{2}<b^{2}.


The Attempt at a Solution



Suppose a,b\geq0 and a^{2}<b^{2}.

Here's my problem. What does "Use (ix) backwards" mean? I'll assume he means to use the converse of (ix). In that case...

The converse of (ix):

\neg(a^{2}<b^{2})\rightarrow\neg(0\leq a<b)

Hence (a^{2}\geq b^{2})\rightarrow\neg(0\leq a\&\&a<b);

hence (a^{2}\geq b^{2})\rightarrow(0>a)\Vert(a\geq b). (\star)

Since a^{2}<b^{2}, then a^{2} \leq b^{2}. So b^{2} \geq a^{2}.

Then by (\star), (0>b)\Vert(b \geq a).

Since b \geq 0, then we know 0>b cannot be true.

This means that b\geq a must be true.

But if b=a, then b^{2}=a^{2}; this is a contradiction since we are given that a^{2}<b^{2}.

Hence b>a must be true.

Hence a<b.
 
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What you have done is perfectly good.
 
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