Do 1/inf and 1000/inf have same limit of 0?

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The discussion centers on whether the limits of 1/N and 1000/N approach zero as N tends to infinity. Both expressions indeed have a limit of zero as N increases. However, the phrase "1/infinity" is criticized for being nonsensical in the context of real numbers, as arithmetic cannot be performed with infinity. The conclusion affirms that while both limits are zero, the terminology used in the question is misleading. The limits of 1/N and 1000/N are correctly stated to be zero as N approaches infinity.
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The title says it all:

Do

\frac{1}{N} = and \frac{1000}{N} have limit of zero as N tends to infinity?
 
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Yes.
 
ok :D ty
 
hassman said:
The title says it all:

Do

\frac{1}{N} = and \frac{1000}{N} have limit of zero as N tends to infinity?
No, the title does not say it all! the limit as N goes to infinity, of 1/N, is NOT the same as "1/infinity"! The latter simply makes no sense. You cannot do arithmetic with "infinity" in the real number system.

The answer to your question is "yes", however, those limits are both 0.
 
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