seand
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Hi there, I'm a new user to the forums (and Calculus) and I 'm hoping you can give me your opinion on my chain rule form below. When learning the chain rule, I was taught two forms. This form:
\frac{d}{dx}f(g(x))=f'(g(x))g'(x)
As well as the Leibniz form
\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{dy}{du}\frac{du}{dx} where y=f(u) and u=g(x)
I prefer the Leibniz notation, except that it requires you to understand that y=f(u) and u=g(x), to really understand the d/dx expression.
So my question is if there is a way to make Liebniz more explicit? ie. Does the following make sense? Is it correct?
\frac{d}{dx}f(g(x)) = \frac{df(g(x))}{dg(x)}\frac{dg(x)}{dx}
\frac{d}{dx}f(g(x))=f'(g(x))g'(x)
As well as the Leibniz form
\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{dy}{du}\frac{du}{dx} where y=f(u) and u=g(x)
I prefer the Leibniz notation, except that it requires you to understand that y=f(u) and u=g(x), to really understand the d/dx expression.
So my question is if there is a way to make Liebniz more explicit? ie. Does the following make sense? Is it correct?
\frac{d}{dx}f(g(x)) = \frac{df(g(x))}{dg(x)}\frac{dg(x)}{dx}