Tell me how was I soppused to carry out?
Check it out:
>If :
>f( (x-1)/(x+1)) + f(-1/x) + f( (x+1)/(1-x)) = x >Find f(x) without using derivatives nor limits nor Integrals.
Cute.
Left side is not defined for x = -1, 0 or 1, but I guess we should
ignore that.
Let h(x) = (x-1)/(x+1), and let h[n] be h iterated n times.
Notice that h[2](x) = -1/x, h[3](x) = (x+1)/(1-x) and h[4](x) = x.
So the equation says f(h(x)) + f(h[2](x)) + f(h[3](x)) = x.
Replacing x by h(x), we have f(h[2](x)) + f(h[3](x)) + f(x) = h(x).
Similarly, f(h[3](x)) + f(x) + f(h(x)) = h[2](x), and
f(x) + f(h(x)) + f(h[2](x)) = h[3](x).
Solve this system of four equations for f(x), f(h(x)), f(h[2](x))
and f(h[3](x)) and you get your answer, which is a rational function
with numerator of degree 4 and denominator of degree 3.
Robert Israel
israel@math.ubc.ca
Department of Mathematics
http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel University of British Columbia Vancouver, BC, Canada
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I think what Robert said is somehow like what James_R has written.
But I don't understand how was I soppused to find or guess this ugly fraction by plugging in diffrent x values? .