Piece of metal being carried through an inductor

  • Thread starter Thread starter guss
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Inductor Metal
AI Thread Summary
A piece of metal traveling through an inductor with DC current will experience a delay in the magnetic field reaching its peak due to the time it takes for current to build. The presence of the metal can disrupt the current and magnetic field, causing the solenoid to take longer to energize, especially if the metal is ferromagnetic like iron. The metal will be attracted to both sides of the solenoid, confirming that it experiences a uniform magnetic pull despite the field direction. Additionally, the interaction of the metal with the magnetic field can induce a current in the conductor, influenced by the Lorentz force. Overall, the behavior of the metal varies significantly based on its material properties, affecting the solenoid's performance.
guss
Messages
246
Reaction score
0
Hi, I have some questions about a piece of metal traveling through an inductor with DC current flowing through it. Imagine a solenoid of sorts with a hole in the middle that a piece of neutrally charged metal travels through, sort of like a coil gun.

Let's say the inductor has no current running through it, then we turn it on. It will take time to get up near it's peak magnetic field output, correct? I know the current takes time to get going, and the magnetic field is proportional to the current. And if the piece of metal is attracted to the solenoid, then the piece of metal will travel through the solenoid. Will the piece of metal being attracted by and traveling through the solenoid disrupt the current/magnetic field of the solenoid? As in, will the solenoid take longer to "get going" if it is attracting a piece of neutral metal?

My last question is, will the piece of metal be attracted to both sides of the solenoid (instead of attracted by one and repelled by the other) even though the magnetic field goes straight through the solenoid? I'm pretty sure the answer is yes but I'm just making sure.

Thanks!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I would model this using the free electrons moving into the B field of the solenoid.
What direction are the free electrons moving in the B field. And then use the Lorentz force to see which way the electrons will move in the conductor. Will there be an induced current in the conductor and if so what direction is it? F=q(vxB)
Good questions you bring up.
 
Thanks, but I still have a lot of difficulties. Such as, the force acting on the electrons is in the same direction as the magnetic field in the solenoid.
 
guss said:
Hi, I have some questions about a piece of metal traveling through an inductor with DC current flowing through it. Imagine a solenoid of sorts with a hole in the middle that a piece of neutrally charged metal travels through, sort of like a coil gun.
Copper and aluminium (non-magnetic) will behave differently to steel and nickel.
My last question is, will the piece of metal be attracted to both sides of the solenoid (instead of attracted by one and repelled by the other) even though the magnetic field goes straight through the solenoid? I'm pretty sure the answer is yes but I'm just making sure.
If you quickly slide the iron core into an energized solenoid, the core can travel through and partly emerge from the far end, then get pulled back in, then bounce back and forth until it settles.

Iron dropped into the solenoid just as it's being energized will increase the inductance, causing the coil's current to rise more slowly. :smile:
 
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...
Back
Top