Derivation of Faraday's Law from the Lorentz Force Law

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the relationship between Faraday's Law of Induction and Ampere's Force Law, specifically how Faraday's Law can be derived from the Lorentz Force Law. The scope includes theoretical derivation and conceptual connections within electromagnetic theory.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation, Conceptual clarification, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a derivation connecting Faraday's Law to the Lorentz Force Law, detailing the mathematical relationships involved.
  • Another participant expresses uncertainty about the accuracy of the derivation provided.
  • A third participant references a Wikipedia page that includes a derivation of Faraday's Law and expresses interest in further exploring the references listed there.
  • One participant introduces the idea that the induced emf has two components: one from motion and another from flux change, suggesting a need to consider both in the context of Faraday's disk.
  • Another participant counters that flux change is inherently related to motion, implying a connection between the two concepts.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the derivation or the components of induced emf, indicating multiple competing views and unresolved aspects of the discussion.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes assumptions about the invariance of certain variables in the derivation and the dependence on specific definitions of terms like emf and flux change, which remain unresolved.

Lamarr
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Someone asked me how Faraday's Law of Induction and Ampere's Force Law, both which form part of Maxwell's Equations, are related.

Ampere's Force Law is derived from the Lorentz Force Law. They are entirely compatible with Faraday's Law of Induction. Here's how...The Lorentz Force Law states:

F_B=Bq \times v

B Magnetic flux Density

q Magnitude of charge

v Velocity of charge

q=ALρ_q \frac{dq}{dt}=Ap_q. \frac{dL}{dt}

ρ_q Charge density

A Cross-sectional area

L Length
v=\frac{dL}{dt}
∴F_B=\frac{dL}{dt} \times B.ALρ_q=Ap_q. \frac{dL}{dt}×BL
F_B=\frac{dq}{dt}×BLV=\frac{dW}{dq}

V Potential Difference

W Work done

x Perpendicular displacementW=∫F_B .dx=∫\frac{dq}{dt}×BL .dx

W=∫BL\frac{dx}{dt} .dq

∴V=BL\frac{dx}{dt}
BLx=\phi

\phi Magnetic Flux DensityAssuming B and L to be invariant:

BL\frac{dx}{dt}=\frac{d\phi}{dt}

∴V=\frac{d\phi}{dt}
A very crappy derivation, but it's the best possible way to show the direct connection between the two formulas.
 
Last edited:
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Hope I haven't made any mistakes. :blushing:
 
Are you familiar with the fact that the emf induced comes from two parts one is the motion part which you are counting and the other is flux change(both are different).think about faraday disk and see how will you apply flux rule to count for emf.
 
Well flux change is due to motion as well.
 

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