1-D harmonic oscillator problem

8614smith
Messages
49
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Consider a particle of mass m moving in a one-dimensional potential,

V(x)=\infty for x\leq0

V(x)=\frac{1}{2}m{\omega^2}{x^2} for x>0

This potential describes an elastic spring (with spring constant K = m\omega^2) that can be extended but not compressed.

By reference to the solution of the 1-D harmonic oscillator potential sketch and state the form of the valid eigenfunctions, and state the corresponding eigenvalues, for the ground and first excited state.



Homework Equations


E=(n+\frac{1}{2})\hbar\omega

The Attempt at a Solution


https://www.physicsforums.com/attachment.php?attachmentid=23025&stc=1&d=1263339354
Here is the potential sketch

Since the potential V(x)=\infty for x\leq0, The potential at x=0 is infinity. So the wave function at x=0 must equal 0. If it were anything else the particle would have infinite energy. Therefore eigenfunctions must pass through the origin.

http://131.104.156.23/Lectures/CHEM_207/CHEM_207_Pictures/p75a_72gif

From the graph, n=1 and n=3 are the lowest eigenfunctions to pass through the origin.

Ground state eigenfunction n=1 {E_1}=(1+\frac{1}{2})\hbar\omega=\frac{3}{2}\hbar\omega

1st excited state eigenfunction n=3 {E_2}=(3+\frac{1}{2})\hbar\omega=\frac{7}{2}\hbar\omega

Can someone tell me if this is right?
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
8614smith said:
1st excited state eigenfunction n=3
<br /> {E_2}=(3+\frac{1}{2})\hbar\omega=\frac{7}{2}\hbar\omega<br />

I believe you mean E_3=\cdots and not what you wrote. But otherwise, this is correct. This problem is a good example of http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parity_(physics)#Quantum_mechanics".
 
Last edited by a moderator:
jdwood983 said:
I believe you mean E_3=\cdots and not what you wrote. But otherwise, this is correct. This problem is a good example of http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parity_(physics)#Quantum_mechanics".

No, i meant E_2 as i thought it is the 2nd energy level i.e. the 1st excited state, can you tell me why this its not E_2
 
Last edited by a moderator:
8614smith said:
No, i meant E_2 as i thought it is the 2nd energy level i.e. the 1st excited state, can you tell me why this its not E_2

The reasoning is purely semantics. Since the formula is E_n=\left(n+\frac{1}{2}\right)\hbar\omega, if you have n=3 in the parenthesis, you should have n=3 as the subscript on E. What you should say is (I made a mistake too)

<br /> E^\prime_1=E_3=\left(3+\frac{1}{2}\right)\hbar\omega=\frac{7}{2}\hbar\omega<br />

and you should also write

<br /> E^\prime_0=E_1=\left(1+\frac{1}{2}\right)\hbar\omega=\frac{3}{2}\hbar\omega<br />

because the first equation is the new first excited state and the second equation is the new ground state. If you calculate more levels, you should find that

<br /> E^\prime_n=\left(2n+\frac{3}{2}\right)\hbar\omega<br />
 
To solve this, I first used the units to work out that a= m* a/m, i.e. t=z/λ. This would allow you to determine the time duration within an interval section by section and then add this to the previous ones to obtain the age of the respective layer. However, this would require a constant thickness per year for each interval. However, since this is most likely not the case, my next consideration was that the age must be the integral of a 1/λ(z) function, which I cannot model.
Back
Top