How fast do impulses travel through a Newton's Cradle?

AI Thread Summary
Impulses in a Newton's Cradle travel at the speed of sound through the medium of the balls, not at the speed of the electrons. While electrons move slowly, the mechanical impulse created by a moving ball propagates quickly through the stationary balls. The discussion highlights that when one ball strikes another, the resulting motion is transmitted almost instantaneously compared to the slow movement of electrons in an electric circuit. This phenomenon is due to the efficient transfer of kinetic energy and momentum through solid materials. Therefore, the speed of impulse in a Newton's Cradle is effectively the speed of sound in the balls.
phlegmy
Messages
120
Reaction score
0
hey dudes

i read in a book that when an electric current flow that the electrons move preety slow [maybe 1mm/s I'm not sure]
now i also know electricity travels at the speed of light (ideally) so that an electron c*1s away will take 1s to start moving after i close the circuit

so i was thinking about a Newtons cradle
if the moving ball hits the next ball at say .05m/s and all the balls add up to .05m then obviously it won't take a full second for the last ball to move, so how fast does the "impulse"? move through the stationary balls . I've a feeling its the speed of sound (in the medium of the balls) is that right?
 
Physics news on Phys.org

Thread 'Is calling fictitious forces "not real" just about terminology?'

Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
View full post »

Thread 'Derivation of Hamilton's Principle: Questions'

I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...
View full post »

Similar threads

B Why is KE not conserved when momentum is?
2
Replies
53
Views
4K
Newton's Cradle: Fascinating Momentum & Kinetic Energy
Replies
1
Views
2K
Exactly how do pressure waves work at the molecular level?
Replies
49
Views
4K
B Questions about momentum and force as well as normal force/friction
Replies
35
Views
4K
Elastic Collision: how do the forces and work done make sense?
Replies
23
Views
2K
I Can this experiment break Lorentz symmetry?
Replies
35
Views
521
Observed speed of pitch different than catcher's view?
Replies
1
Views
1K
How Fast Does an Electrical Impulse Travel in a Copper Wire?
3
Replies
100
Views
10K
Golf club 🏌️and ball ⛳ impulse problem
Replies
19
Views
3K
Have anybody considered travel with faster-than-infinite speeds?
Replies
4
Views
2K

Hot Threads

Recent Insights

Back
Top