A Function domain/range question

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A function with a domain of (0,1) and a range of [0,1] is challenging to construct due to the nature of continuous functions. The discussion highlights that while mapping the interval (0, 1) to [0, 1] is difficult, it can be approached by considering piecewise functions or separating rational and irrational numbers. The example of y=x² is mentioned, which maps (-1,1) to [0,1), illustrating how half-closed intervals can be utilized. Ultimately, there is consensus that no continuous, invertible function can achieve the desired mapping from (0,1) to [0,1]. The problem requires overcoming mental blocks and breaking it down into manageable parts.
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Homework Statement


Give an example of a function whose domain equals the interval (0,1) but whose range is equal to [0, 1].
2. The attempt at a solution
I can't see a way how such function would exits. I though about it this way, if it was the opposite Domain [0,1] and range (0, 1), we could make values 0 and 1 into any number in between without it not being a function, and still having a range that is an interval. If I take domain (0, 1) and produce range [0, 1], I would need to take one of the numbers from (0, 1) and make it [0, 1]. Meaning its no longer has an range that is an interval. It could have a range that is an interval if one of numbers (0, 1) had two possible answers, but the example would no longer be a function.
 
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You don't have to have an equal-measure correspondence between your domain and range.

Try mapping the domain (0,1/2) to the range (0,1). You can do it, right? Now extend the domain to (0,1) and use the endpoints too.
 
There is no continuous function that will do map (0, 1) to [0, 1]. I frankly don't see any way to construct a function to fit these conditions that would make sense in a precalculus class. I would separate (0, 1) into rational and irrational numbers, map the irrational numbers to themselves, the "shift" the rationals to fit 0 and 1 in.
 
There is no continuous, invertible function that maps (0,1) to [0,1]. However, there is no continuous function that maps [0,1] to (0,1).

The problem is, IMO, rather easy as soon as you get past the mental blocks -- e.g. limiting your thought to invertible functions, avoiding piecewise-defined functions, trying to do the whole problem in one shot rather than breaking it into easier pieces, et cetera.
 
Consider the function y=x2. It maps the open interval (-1,1) to the half-closed interval [0,1). If you understand how the half-closure comes about in this case, you should be able to figure out a suitable function for your problem.
 
I tried to combine those 2 formulas but it didn't work. I tried using another case where there are 2 red balls and 2 blue balls only so when combining the formula I got ##\frac{(4-1)!}{2!2!}=\frac{3}{2}## which does not make sense. Is there any formula to calculate cyclic permutation of identical objects or I have to do it by listing all the possibilities? Thanks
Since ##px^9+q## is the factor, then ##x^9=\frac{-q}{p}## will be one of the roots. Let ##f(x)=27x^{18}+bx^9+70##, then: $$27\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)^2+b\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)+70=0$$ $$b=27 \frac{q}{p}+70 \frac{p}{q}$$ $$b=\frac{27q^2+70p^2}{pq}$$ From this expression, it looks like there is no greatest value of ##b## because increasing the value of ##p## and ##q## will also increase the value of ##b##. How to find the greatest value of ##b##? Thanks
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