I A new realistic stochastic interpretation of Quantum Mechanics

  • #401
iste said:
1. Its not if one thinks that a BSM is formally equivalent to statistical conditioning. This is what the Barandes paper would imply and I have read other papers that would imply similarly. Its not factually incorrect. And I'm am pretty sure a Bell state implies a correlation so I would say it is correlating. You are correlating by picking out ensembles where you always have the same two outcomes.


2. But they would have a correlation in the same basis right? They are entangled... which isn't even something I am contesting.
1. It is NOT statistical conditioning (the Barandes view). You read the exact same values for the 2 bits used to identify the Bell state (essentially as correlated or anti-correlated) regardless of whether there is a swap or not. The swap ONLY occurs if there is 2&3overlap in the beamsplitter. The experiment explains this.


2. No, they are NOT entangled when measured on the H/V basis UNLESS the swap occurs - which is the a) side. When there is distinguishability - the b) side - they are not entangled but they do yield the same statistics (as they authors show).

Even a broken clock displays the correct time twice a day. This is the same example.
 
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  • #402
Fra said:
How do you define "FTL action"?
I think the normal definition for an FTL action is: An effect that is occurs over a spacetime distance (between 2 spacetime points) that exceeds an effect that is limited to c. I include in that situations in which temporal order is blurred - delayed choice situations for example. And the effect need not go from one spot to the other (i.e. it need not be clearly directional).
 
  • #403
DrChinese said:
I think the normal definition for an FTL action is: An effect that is occurs over a spacetime distance (between 2 spacetime points) that exceeds an effect that is limited to c. I include in that situations in which temporal order is blurred - delayed choice situations for example. And the effect need not go from one spot to the other (i.e. it need not be clearly directional).
But in the situation above, the effect is in the past light cone of the cause, isn't it? They are not just space like seperated. You could send a message from an event to the event that caused it!
 
  • #404
DrChinese said:
I think the normal definition for an FTL action is: An effect that is occurs over a spacetime distance (between 2 spacetime points) that exceeds an effect that is limited to c. I include in that situations in which temporal order is blurred - delayed choice situations for example. And the effect need not go from one spot to the other (i.e. it need not be clearly directional).
As you require no causal order for term, do you agree with

FTL action = Spacelike correlation ?

And then "correlation" can either be understood as statiatical dependence or on single instance basis? Or would you use different terms for the two variants?

/Fredrik
 
  • #405
DrChinese said:
You read the exact same values for the 2 bits used to identify the Bell state (essentially as correlated or anti-correlated) regardless of whether there is a swap or not. The swap ONLY occurs if there is 2&3overlap in the beamsplitter. The experiment explains this.
Nothing incompatible here with anything I have said.
DrChinese said:
2. No, they are NOT entangled when measured on the H/V basis UNLESS the swap occurs - which is the a) side. When there is distinguishability - the b) side - they are not entangled but they do yield the same statistics (as they authors show).
Again, I don't know if there is anything that prima facie contradicts statistical conditioning here given that the correlations in the raw data of separable measurements can be reproduced by mixing the data sets of Bell states, removing the correlations from the other bases but preserves correlations in one of them. Transitivity then allows correlations to show up in 1 & 4 as far as what the non-separable and separable cases allow.
 
  • #406
iste said:
I don't know if there is anything that prima facie contradicts statistical conditioning here
If you mean, does this experimental data rule out a statistical interpretation of QM, no, it doesn't. No interpretation of QM can be ruled out by experimental data, since all interpretations use the same (or equivalent) math, the math of standard QM, and so they all make the same predictions for all experiments. That is a fundamental premise for all discussions in this forum. And because of that, trying to use experimental data to either prove or disprove any particular interpretation is out of bounds here. The best we can do is to express opinions about how we think particular experiments make some interpretations more or less plausible or acceptable to us. @DrChinese's position appears to be that the experiments he describes make a statistical interpretation of QM extremely implausible (to the point where it is unacceptable to him). Yours appears to be that they don't. There is no way to resolve such a disagreement (and that is also a fundamental premise for all discussions in this forum).

There are hypotheses in the literature which are sometimes called "interpretations" of QM, but which are really different theories, because they make different predictions. An example is the GRW stochastic collapse model (which is not the same, as far as I can tell, as the stochastic interpretation that the OP of this thread refers to.) Those should really be discussed in the Beyond the Standard Models forum.
 
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  • #407
PeterDonis said:
If you mean, does this experimental data rule out a statistical interpretation of QM, no, it doesn't.

No, I have been talking about normal statistical conditioning, not interpretation. We are talking about whether a very specific aspect of the experimental results that Dr. Chinese pulled out of a particular experiment can be explained by statistical conditioning on pairs of outcomes from two different entanglements. Its a question how the experiment works, my argument citing a specific passage where the authors report their data which is prima facie compatible with what I said about this in previous posts, regarding how the experiment works.
 
  • #408
iste said:
I have been talking about normal statistical conditioning, not interpretation.
This thread is in the interpretations subforum. The subject is a stochastic interpretation. If you are not talking about interpretation, then your posts are off topic for this thread, in this subforum.

iste said:
We are talking about whether a very specific aspect of the experimental results that Dr. Chinese pulled out of a particular experiment can be explained by statistical conditioning on pairs of outcomes from two different entanglements.
Of course it can. That is an obvious consequence of the fact that the predictions of the standard math of QM, independent of any interpretation, match the experimental results.

It is also irrelevant to this thread. This thread, in this subforum, is about QM interpretations, not the comparison of QM predictions with results. As far as interpretations go, as I have already said, the comparison of QM predictions with results cannot possibly rule out any interpretation, since they all use the same math of standard QM and all make the same experimental predictions.

Basically, as I've already said, you are saying that you don't think these experiments make the preferred interpretation of @DrChinese any more plausible, or a statistical interpretation any less plausible. Okay, noted. But continuing to belabor the point serves no purpose.
 
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  • #409
JC_Silver said:
I'm not gonna lie, this is what gets me about the non-Markovian process, because the dice rolls isn't a non-Markovian process, it's a regular stochastic process. Since I'm not well versed in stochastic processes of any kind and I can't find good sources on non-Markovian processes online that are not by Barandes (as we used to say in the long past, my Google-fu isn't strong enough), I'm left not understanding exactly why the particle has definite positions between division events, because as far as I understand, the dice roll also doesn't exist between one roll and the next.

Again, sorry for bothering >.<
The particle is in a definite position at every point in time but the position is subject to random change over time. Because of the randomness, the behavior of definite particles can only be described by attaching probabilities on top. Indivisibility is in regard to the ability to assign certain probabilities describing particle behavior. Division events momentarily allow the application of that type of probability, but only temporarily.
 
  • #410
PeterDonis said:
Basically, as I've already said, you are saying that you don't think these experiments make the preferred interpretation of @DrChinese any more plausible, or a statistical interpretation any less plausible. Okay, noted. But continuing to belabor the point serves no purpose.
Well presumably everytime Dr. Chinese brings up entanglement swapping to attack another interpretation he is breaking the rules then.
 
  • #411
martinbn said:
But in the situation above, the effect is in the past light cone of the cause, isn't it? They are not just space like seperated. You could send a message from an event to the event that caused it!
No signal possible faster than light, no signal to the past either
 
  • #412
iste said:
Nothing incompatible here with anything I have said.

Again, I don't know if there is anything that prima facie contradicts statistical conditioning here given that the correlations in the raw data of separable measurements can be reproduced by mixing the data sets of Bell states, removing the correlations from the other bases but preserves correlations in one of them. Transitivity then allows correlations to show up in 1 & 4 as far as what the non-separable and separable cases allow.
Except that there is one result that is different when there is physical overlap that does not occur otherwise. If you don’t want to call that action, fine.

There is no such thing as transitivity in this context.
 
  • #413
iste said:
Well presumably everytime Dr. Chinese brings up entanglement swapping to attack another interpretation he is breaking the rules then.
"Attack" is a vague term. His position, as I have already said, is that he thinks entanglement swapping makes certain interpretations much less plausible. That is his opinion. You are free to have your own, different opinion.
 
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  • #414
DrChinese said:
calling the results in each bucket as being statistical is also misleading to some readers. The prediction is certain in each and every case. (And for this statement I am referring to the Ma experiment specifically, as it does not feature a CHSH-like inequality.)
"Certain" is an idealization. The prediction is only certain if it is guaranteed that all of the polarization measurements are made in exactly the same direction (or in exactly orthogonal directions). In any real experiment, that cannot be guaranteed. There is always some finite error involved. That means there is always some need for statistical analysis just to deal with that source of error.

I agree that experiments in which the idealized prediction is not an inequality but a definite single result are more definitive in terms of confirming the QM predictions independently of any particular interpretation, because the role statistics plays is narrower.

However, they do not pose any problem for a statistical interpretation of QM, because "statistics" includes the edge cases where the prediction is 100% probability for one result and 0% probability for any other result. And to robustly test such predictions, you still need a large number of runs. Just one run with the predicted result is a very weak test.
 
  • #415
DrChinese said:
Except that there is one result that is different when there is physical overlap that does not occur otherwise. If you don’t want to call that action, fine.
And the distinction between nonseparable and separable systems exists in the Barandes formulation so nothing is missing. The separable HHVV measurement data is statistically the same as when you just mix the Bell state HHVV+ and HHVV- data together. Mix the HHVV+- with HVHV+- and all correlations disappear. A hierarchy of correlations in the raw data.

DrChinese said:
There is no such thing as transitivity in this context.

There is always transitivity. A is only ever correlated with D because A is correlated with B is correlated with C is correlated with D, entanglement or separable.
 
  • #416
Fra said:
As you require no causal order for term, do you agree with

FTL action = Spacelike correlation ?

And then "correlation" can either be understood as statiatical dependence or on single instance basis? Or would you use different terms for the two variants?

/Fredrik
DrChinese said:
Except that there is one result that is different when there is physical overlap that does not occur otherwise. If you don’t want to call that action, fine.
I think this response to the another post answers my question too with a yes?

I think the confusion was the word "action" as i tend to associate it with "causal influence" in that, someone has the CHOICE to take an action, and this influences something else, but its not quite what you meaa I think.

Yes the experimenter can choose to mess upp the experiment at will, to make sure you get NO "tags" to send, or it can choose to NOT send the BSM results, but destroy it, but even when doing it's BEST, it can not CHOOSE which of the possiblities that you get for an individual 2&3 pair. Thus the "choice" the experimenter have, is not a choice of that kind.

So with your definition then I agree there is "FTL action", but it is not conceptually problematic to my understanding.

I think any physical experiments requires extreme leves of control. So it is obvious that an experiementer has a "choice" to destroy the inferences from the experiments. But I think that physical laws represents are somehow the "optimal inferences" that are possible; ie given a perfect experimental control and given that exprimenters make no human errors.

/Fredrik
 
  • #417
pines-demon said:
It is normal, Barandes himself says that there is almost no literature on non-Markovian processes, and most of the literature out there is about non-Markovian divisible processes, so Barandes stuff is very niche.
This makes sense, I think the potential extensios to Barandes perspective may required a radical change in the paradigm of which we view physical law. I relate to his, as the same is try for my own interpretation.

But I would propose that a nice context to view Barandes stochastics (though I am not sure what he thinkgs of it) is via an agent based model, where agents actions are "stochastic", but guided by conditional probabilities. This may give insight to the "nature" of the stochastics in a hidden variabl pace, in constrast to bell style HV.

This is paper on AI that associates the need for non-markovian decisions to the existence of "hidden states", hidden from the agents "immediate sensation". This is also the explicit meanig of the "hidden layers" in neural network models. So there is IMO many reasons to associate the non-markovian appearance with this type of "hidden variables"
https://doi.org/10.7551/mitpress/2026.003.0019

The insight you can more easily get from this, when considering "interacting" agents, is that interference patterns can happen, because their "hidden variables" are NOT of the type that Bell envisions; so they will not restore determinism, but they might provide other benefits in model building.

I think the synthesis of these ideas with foundational physics, is very immature subject and this is why there isn't alot of published. But I expect alot more from this in the future.

While that is beyond anything Barandes says, he writes himeself that he sees future possibilities in various areas, and it would be nice to see him elaborate on this. Had Barandes been a mathematician first, I could have imagine that he has no such idea. But as he seems to come from philosophical angles, it would appear strange to me, if he didn't have at least something to add here?

/Fredrik
 
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  • #418
iste said:
1. And the distinction between nonseparable and separable systems exists in the Barandes formulation so nothing is missing. The separable HHVV measurement data is statistically the same as when you just mix the Bell state HHVV+ and HHVV- data together. Mix the HHVV+- with HVHV+- and all correlations disappear. A hierarchy of correlations in the raw data.

2. There is always transitivity. A is only ever correlated with D because A is correlated with B is correlated with C is correlated with D, entanglement or separable.
Again, let’s get the facts straight.

1. There is no mixing! The same 2 bits are revealed at the BSM - identifying the possible Bell swapped state - regardless of whether there is distinguishable 2&3 or not. That’s my point!! So the correlation does disappear for the distinguishable case + for example, because there is no swap. But not because that case wasn’t identified. Ditto for the - case. These were separately identified and counted.

Please note that your mention of HHVV and HVHV type cases is actually not useful, because the correlation exists there even without a swap. It is the +HH+ and -VH+ type cases that demonstrate the effect.

2. Note again there is NO transitive effect as you imagine. Yes, there appears to be some - even when entanglement is not swapped- when you measure on the H/V basis. But all normal swapping tests use a different basis such as +/- or L/R. Those are not “transitive” in your sense. The actual experimental results show this point, so there is nothing to dispute on your part.
 
  • #419
Fra said:
I think the confusion was the word "action" as i tend to associate it with "causal influence" in that, someone has the CHOICE to take an action, and this influences something else, but its not quite what you meaa I think.

Yes the experimenter can choose to mess upp the experiment at will, to make sure you get NO "tags" to send, or it can choose to NOT send the BSM results, but destroy it, but even when doing it's BEST, it can not CHOOSE which of the possiblities that you get for an individual 2&3 pair. Thus the "choice" the experimenter have, is not a choice of that kind.

So with your definition then I agree there is "FTL action", but it is not conceptually problematic to my understanding.

I think any physical experiments requires extreme leves of control. So it is obvious that an experiementer has a "choice" to destroy the inferences from the experiments. But I think that physical laws represents are somehow the "optimal inferences" that are possible; ie given a perfect experimental control and given that exprimenters make no human errors.

/Fredrik
Again, if the experimenter’s distant control of entanglement does not conflict with your (or your reading of Barandes’) interpretation: then all good. No one is claiming that there is FTL action that is useful for signaling. The specific Bell state that results is random, and not under the experimenter’s free choice.
 
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  • #420
DrChinese said:
because the correlation exists there even without a swap. It is the +HH+ and -VH+ type cases that demonstrate the effect
The point is that it seems to be the case that if you take all of the possible data from 2 & 3, there is always ways of sorting the data where you have Bell state correlations, separable correlations and no correlations whatsoever. The fact that you can mix the Bell state data and make the correlations in other bases disappear is indicative of this because even though those correlations have disappeared, its just the same data mixed up. The new mixed up data is then statistically the same as the separable measurements data (even though it is made up of swap data).

This seems strongly analogous to other delayed-choice eraser scenarios where adding together the coherent interference patterns on eraser idler photon screens just results in the same clump patterns as on the which-way idler photon screens and also the signal photon screen. What is happening in these experiements is that, via interference, the beam-splitter is affecting how the data from the entanglements is physically being sorted in the idler photons. Obviously the beamsplitter and which-way cases are very different physically, but the data just adds up. You can then formulate the analogue of this in entanglement-swapping.

DrChinese said:
The same 2 bits are revealed at the BSM - identifying the possible Bell swapped state - regardless of whether there is distinguishable 2&3 or not
And this is also pretty clearly the case in the part where they unambiguously describe mixing Bell states and report the statistical correlations they do and do not find. The mixing I am referring to is very unambiguously decribed in the paper you linked. I think you need to re-read that part of the paper.

DrChinese said:
Those are not “transitive” in your sense

They are in precisely the sense I mean - in the sense that the particles possess correlations and if you should chose to make measurements you would find those correlations. The fact that you happen to choose to measure some bases or not is immaterial, just like the fact that the entangled photons will have correlations in all bases but you clearly cannot ever simultaneously measure them at the same time.
 
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  • #421
iste said:
1. The point is that it seems to be the case that if you take all of the possible data from 2 & 3, there is always ways of sorting the data where you have Bell state correlations, separable correlations and no correlations whatsoever. The fact that you can mix the Bell state data and make the correlations in other bases disappear is indicative of this because even though those correlations have disappeared, its just the same data mixed up. The new mixed up data is then statistically the same as the separable measurements data (even though it is made up of swap data).

And this is also pretty clearly the case in the part where they unambiguously describe mixing Bell states and report the statistical correlations they do and do not find. The mixing I am referring to is very unambiguously decribed in the paper you linked. I think you need to re-read that part of the paper.


2. They are in precisely the sense I mean - in the sense that the particles possess correlations and if you should chose to make measurements you would find those correlations. The fact that you happen to choose to measure some bases or not is immaterial, just like the fact that the entangled photons will have correlations in all bases but you clearly cannot ever simultaneously measure them at the same time.

Again, just trying to present the actual facts.

1. There is no "mixing" in this paper, or any others I cite. Respected scientists do not "mix" statistics to deceive readers. They present a real effect that has been replicated in various manners in other experiments. I might have hoped that it would not be necessary to say that, since one of the authors shared a Nobel for this and other ground-breaking work. But perhaps some quotes from the paper itself will be convincing:

"Since Peres' proposal [circa 1999], there have been pioneering delayed entanglement swapping experiments. However, none of these demonstrations implemented an active, random and delayed choice, which is required to guarantee that the photons cannot know in advance the setting of the future measurement. Thus, these experiments in principle allowed for a spatiotemporal description in which the past choice event influences later measurement events. Our experiment demonstrates entanglement-separability duality in a delayed-choice configuration via entanglement swapping for the first time. This means that it is possible to freely and a posteriori decide which type of mutually exclusive correlations two already earlier measured particles have. They can either show quantum correlations (due to entanglement) or purely classical correlations (stemming from a separable state).

"For each successful run (a 4-fold coincidence count), not only Victor’s measurement event happens 485 ns later than Alice and Bob’s measurement events, but Victor’s choice happens in an interval of 14 ns to 313 ns later than Alice and Bob’s measurement events. Therefore, independent of the reference frame, Victor’s choice and measurement are in the future light cones of Alice and Bob’s measurements. Given the causal structure of special relativity, i.e. that past events can influence (time-like) future events but not vice versa, we explicitly implemented the delayed-choice scenario as described by Peres.

"Fig. 3A shows that when Victor performs the Bell-state measurement and projects photons 2 and 3 onto
|Φ−〉23, this swaps the entanglement, which is confirmed by significant correlations of photons 1 and 4 in all
three bases. ... On the other hand, when Victor performs the separable-state measurement on photons 2 and 3 and does not swap entanglement, the correlation only exists in the |𝐻〉/|𝑉〉 basis and vanishes in the |+〉/|−〉 and|𝑅〉/|𝐿〉 bases, as shown in Fig. 3B. This is a signature that photons 1 and 4 are not entangled but in a separable state. ... For each pair of photons 1&4, we record the chosen measurement configurations and the 4-foldcoincidence detection events. All raw data are sorted into four subensembles in real time according to Victor’s choice and measurement results. After all the data had been taken, we calculated the polarization correlation function of photons 1 and 4. It is derived from their coincidence counts of photons 1 and 4 conditional on projecting photons 2 and 3 to |Φ−〉23 = (|𝐻𝐻〉23 − |𝑉𝑉〉23)/√2 when the Bell-state measurement was performed, and to |𝐻𝐻〉23 or |𝑉𝑉〉23 when the separable state measurement [SSM] was performed."


Note that the only Bell state statistics that are being presented are for the |Φ−〉 case, and the |Φ+〉 case is not considered for technical reasons. For the Separable state stats, the comparable stats to the |Φ−〉 case are presented. The results are "apples to apples". It is a simple matter to see the critical difference between the 3a graph (Victor executes a swap) and the 3b graph. This difference is simply a result of Victor's decision (actually a random choice) to swap or not.

So no matter what you seem to think, there is a demonstrable effect that is strictly dependent on interfering overlap in the beamsplitter: "The Bell-state measurement (BSM) corresponds to turning on the switchable quarter-wave plates..." while the SSM (separable) corresponds to leaving them off. Note that other cited implementations of switching between the BSM vs. SSM (i.e. swap or not) use delay to create distinguishable photons.


2. There is no such thing as "transitive" statistical relationships between independently created entangled pair streams such as 1&2 and 3&4 (that would also yield a underlying relationship between 1&4). I don't know where you got this idea from, but you won't find any support for what you say in the literature. Although if I'm wrong, you can always correct me with a suitable citation. :smile:

A broken clock is right twice a day - and it is equally true that there is a basis (H/V specifically, as shown in Figure 3) which do correlate. But that correlation is quite limited, and can easily be seen for what it is. Look at the other bases such as +/- or L/R and you can see the unambiguous results.
 
  • #422
iste said:
it seems to be the case that if you take all of the possible data from 2 & 3, there is always ways of sorting the data where you have Bell state correlations, separable correlations and no correlations whatsoever.
That's not how statistics is done on experiments. You don't look at all the possible ways of sorting data, because the vast majority of them are irrelevant. You look at the ways of sorting data that match up with the actual, physical things that were done in the experiment. In these experiments, an actual, physical thing was done at the BSM where photons 2 & 3 either do or do not interact, based on a choice made by the experimenter. So the sorting of the data that is relevant is the one that matches up with the choice that was made at the BSM, and the resulting measurements on photons 2 & 3. Any other sorting has no basis in scientific experimental practice.
 
  • #423
PAllen said:
TL;DR Summary: I attended a lecture that discussed the approach in the 3 papers listed below. It seems to be a genuinely new interpretation with some interesting features and claims.

These papers claim to present a realistic stochastic interpretation of quantum mechanics that obeys a stochastic form of local causality. (A lecture I recently attended mentioned these papers). It also claims the Born rule as a natural consequence rather than an assumption. This appears to me to be a genuinely new interpretation. I have not delved into the papers in detail, but figured some people here may be interested.

https://arxiv.org/abs/2302.10778
https://arxiv.org/abs/2309.03085
https://arxiv.org/abs/2402.16935
Barandes call it "Formulation" of QM, not "interpretation".

--
lightarrow
 
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  • #424
DrChinese said:
There is no "mixing" in this paper,
I have given you the quote twice. You need to comment on the quote. It os unambiguous what is being said. I don't know why you seem to be in denial about this.
DrChinese said:
"Since Peres' ... was performed."
See the paper I link in post #396 for an alternative perspective. It ironically also seems pretty clear that the authors of the Ma paper endorse a similar kind of view.
DrChinese said:
It is a simple matter to see the critical difference between the 3a graph (Victor executes a swap) and the 3b graph. This difference is simply a result of Victor's decision (actually a random choice) to swap or not.
And it is also easily seen in thr paper that 3b can be recreated by simply mixing up the Bell state data. Yes, Victor decides to make a swap but you can make a decision to physically interact with a system which leads the data to be sorted in different ways. For instance, this is what the beam splitter is doing in the paper in post #396; it is just affecting where the photons end up on the idler screens which leads to the consequence that if you just add the interference patterns on the idler screens together, they just reproduce the two clumps of the other which-way screens and signal screens. This seems strongly analogous to how the coherence conditions' data in the entanglement swapping experiment just sum up to produce the statistics of the other separable data. You have a physical event here which just affects the how data is sorted from other events that we already knew were going to happen. On the eraser experiment, we already knew the photons were going to go through one slit or the other; in the swapping experiment, we already knew what kinds of results that two different entanglement experiments were going to have.

DrChinese said:
So no matter what you seem to think, there is a demonstrable effect that is strictly dependent on interfering overlap in the beamsplitter: "The Bell-state measurement (BSM) corresponds to turning on the switchable quarter-wave plates..." while the SSM (separable) corresponds to leaving them off. Note that other cited implementations of switching between the BSM vs. SSM (i.e. swap or not) use delay to create distinguishable photons.
Again, I have already agreed with this several times already and mentioned how Barandes' formulation plausibly includes this phenomena and how it may relate to the swap.

DrChinese said:
There is no such thing as "transitive" statistical relationships between independently created entangled pair streams such as 1&2 and 3&4 (that would also yield a underlying relationship between 1&4).

Its a generic property any correlations can have aslong as you can establish correlations between 2&3, for instance using a bell-state or separable-state measurement. Because these measurements pick out different correlations, the correlations you can expect to find in 1&4 will be different. The only thing you need is the assumption that 1&2 are correlated, the assumption that 3&4 are correlated, and something that allows you to establish a correlation between 2&3, for instance by measurement of coincidences or states which possess certain coincidences.

DrChinese said:
Look at the other bases such as +/- or L/R and you can see the unambiguous results.
Why do you think that the Barandes view or the conditioning view cannot account for them? It makes complete sense as long as you do the Bell state measurement which effectively can pick out those correlations which are then inherited by 1&4 in virtue of the transitivity that now connects 1, 2, 3 and 4.
 
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  • #425
lightarrow said:
PAllen said:
TL;DR Summary: I attended a lecture that discussed the approach in the 3 papers listed below. It seems to be a genuinely new interpretation with some interesting features and claims.

These papers claim to present a realistic stochastic interpretation of quantum mechanics that obeys a stochastic form of local causality. (A lecture I recently attended mentioned these papers). It also claims the Born rule as a natural consequence rather than an assumption. This appears to me to be a genuinely new interpretation. I have not delved into the papers in detail, but figured some people here may be interested.

https://arxiv.org/abs/2302.10778
https://arxiv.org/abs/2309.03085
https://arxiv.org/abs/2402.16935
Barandes call it "Formulation" of QM, not "interpretation".

--
lightarrow
This might explain why Barandes has to use "peculiar" formulations such as "More precisely, interference is nothing more than a generic discrepancy between actual indivisible stochastic dynamics and hypothetically divisible stochastic dynamics."(in https://arxiv.org/abs/2302.10778).:smile:

Would this “generic discrepancy” - and how in a physical model - elucidate, for example, the experiments on the double-slit diffraction of neutrons?
 
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  • #426
Lord Jestocost said:
This might explain why Barandes has to use "peculiar" formulations such as "More precisely, interference is nothing more than a generic discrepancy between actual indivisible stochastic dynamics and hypothetically divisible stochastic dynamics."(in https://arxiv.org/abs/2302.10778).:smile:

Would this “generic discrepancy” - and how in a physical model - elucidate, for example, the experiments on the double-slit diffraction of neutrons?
Why this peculiar case shoud be different from the general one he addresses?

--
lightarrow
 
  • #427
iste said:
1. I have given you the quote twice. You need to comment on the quote. It os unambiguous what is being said. I don't know why you seem to be in denial about this.

2. See the paper I link in post #396 for an alternative perspective.

3. And it is also easily seen in the paper that 3b can be recreated by simply mixing up the Bell state data. Yes, Victor decides to make a swap but you can make a decision to physically interact with a system which leads the data to be sorted in different ways.

4. Why do you think that the Barandes view or the conditioning view cannot account for them? It makes complete sense as long as you do the Bell state measurement which effectively can pick out those correlations which are then inherited by 1&4 in virtue of the transitivity that now connects 1, 2, 3 and 4. ... There is always transitivity. A is only ever correlated with D because A is correlated with B is correlated with C is correlated with D, entanglement or separable.
1. You quoted the paper, yes:

"When Victor performs a BSM, photons 1 and 4 are only entangled if there exists the information necessary for Victor to specify into which subensembles the data are to be sorted. In our case the subensembles correspond to |Φ−〉23 or |Φ+〉23. Without the ability for this specification, he would have to assign a mixture of these two Bell states to his output state which is separable, and thus he could not correctly sort Alice's and Bob's data into subensembles. This is confirmed by evaluating the experimental data obtained in a BSM but without discriminating between |Φ−〉23 and |Φ+〉23. Then there exists a correlation only in the |𝐻〉/|𝑉〉 basis (0.55 ± 0.06) and no correlations in the |+〉/|−〉 (0.02 ± 0.05) and |𝑅〉/|𝐿〉 (0.01 ± 0.05) bases, similar to the situation when Victor performs a separable-state measurement."

But you completely missed what is being pointed out by the quote, and it in no way matches your ideas. They simply point out that if you don't discriminate between the 2 Bell states |Φ−〉23 and |Φ+〉23, there is no underlying Entangled state statistics. No surprise there, as they yield precisely opposite predictions - and you would expect correlations to cancel each other closely. And they do, just as they report... which is simply for completeness, to show that there were no entangled correlations to begin with.

2. It's a shame that the Nobel committee overlooked this [/sarcasm]brilliant and well-accepted[/end sarcasm] work by Fankhauser when vetting Zeilinger for the Physics Nobel. If they had read it, they certainly would have crossed off Zeilinger's name for the prize.

3. There is no mixing of data!

The graphs of 3a and 3b only include the same signatures for the 2 & 3 photons. That is the signature for the Entangled |Φ−〉23 Bell state for 3a, and the signature for the same state but Separable version (not entangled) in 3b. The signature in either case is exactly the same: 2&3 are marked as HH or VV. These cases are combined, although it wouldn't matter if they were or not. But there is NO MIXING of the |Φ−〉23 and |Φ+〉23 subensembles as you state/imply. The |Φ+〉23 subensemble is not reported on in Figure 3, that is the subensemble where the 2&3 photons are marked as HV or VH. From the paper:

"Then the same coincidence counts (HH and VV combinations of Victor’s detectors) are taken for the computation of the correlation function of photons 1 and 4. These counts can belong to Victor obtaining the entangled state |Φ−〉23 in a BSM or the states |𝐻𝐻〉23 and |𝑉𝑉〉23 in an SSM. For the details, see Supplementary information."

3a: |Φ+〉23 means HH or VV. The 3 mutually unbiased bases are H/V, +/-, L/R, all of which show strong correlation.

3b: |Φ+〉23 means HH or VV (same signature, but Separable rather than Entangled). The 3 mutually unbiased bases are H/V, +/-, L/R, only the first of which shows correlation.

(The 3 bases are selected by Alice and Bob, which occurs prior to Victor's measurement. )

As you say, "a decision to physically interact" does in fact change which bucket the data point is added to. 3a is the bucket ONLY for physical interactions, 3b is the bucket for NO physical interaction. You can't change buckets once they are defined this way, at least not in a science experiment.

4. There is no such thing as "transitivity" of entanglement, and I requested a suitable reference on this completely wrong idea.

When the 2 and 3 photons are correlated (both H or both V), this does not lead to any seemingly entangled correlation whatsoever between photons 1 and 4 EXCEPT when Alice and Bob measure them on the H/V basis. Either 1 and 4 become entangled due to the swap, or they don't. When they are entangled, the 1 & 4 photons will be strongly correlated on ALL bases. If they are separable, that doesn't happen. The statistics, as shown in Fig 3, are completely different. If you were correct, those graphs would look alike. Again, this should be obvious - it's the main result of the paper! I know you can't think they are committing scientific fraud...
 
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  • #428
DrChinese said:
But you completely missed what is being pointed out by the quote, and it in no way matches your ideas. They simply point out that if you don't discriminate between the 2 Bell states |Φ−〉23 and |Φ+〉23, there is no underlying Entangled state statistics
Yes, the fact that not discriminating Bell states removes the correlations is precisely my point. You can clearly have separable measurements of HHVV which have Bell statistics embedded in them that are not distinguished by those measurements. Cleaarly there is something lost in translation here because to me this paragraph looks like it is repeating what I said.

DrChinese said:
2. It's a shame that the Nobel committee overlooked this [/sarcasm]brilliant and well-accepted[/end sarcasm] work by Fankhauser when vetting Zeilinger for the Physics Nobel. If they had read it, they certainly would have crossed off Zeilinger's name for the prize.
I don't see any argument here and the paper clearly is not refuting anything about non-locality.

DrChinese said:
But there is NO MIXING of the |Φ−〉23 and |Φ+〉23 subensembles as you state/imply

Yes, there is no mixing of the separable and non-separable measurements. Just like in the delayed eraser experiment there are clearly different screens where the interference photons and which-way photons go. But if you mix the interference photo data it just adds together into the which-way data. Similarly here, the authors explicitly mixed the non-separable data and produced what is statistically indistinguishable from the separable data. The point is that the fact that there are some measurements with correlations in other bases and some measurements with correlations in only one base is not a miraculous point. Because the experiment clearly shows that you can go from one to the other by mixing the data, or using measurements that fail to make discriminations that a Bell state measurement would. We have two entangled systems which in virtue of their entanglement are always going to produce a predictable set of results if you measure them a bunch. Even if you measure an entangled system on different bases, you know what measurements you would have got had you measured them on the same basis. The Bell state and separable measurements are two ways in which we can establish coincidences between the two different entangled systems but one enables a different kind of coupling due to the coherence and phase that is not accessible in the separable case.
.

DrChinese said:
4. There is no such thing as "transitivity" of entanglement, and I requested a suitable reference on this completely wrong idea.

When the 2 and 3 photons are correlated (both H or both V), this does not lead to any seemingly entangled correlation whatsoever between photons 1 and 4 EXCEPT when Alice and Bob measure them on the H/V basis. Either 1 and 4 become entangled due to the swap, or they don't. When they are entangled, the 1 & 4 photons will be strongly correlated on ALL bases. If they are separable, that doesn't happen. The statistics, as shown in Fig 3, are completely different. If you were correct, those graphs would look alike. Again, this should be obvious - it's the main result of the paper! I know you can't think they are committing scientific fraud
The answer to this is that in the two parts of figure 3 we have two examples of transitivity: transitivity of separable correlations and the transitivity of entanglement correlations. If you have correlations for one basis for 2 and 3, then transitivity means only allowing correlations between 1 and 4 in one basis. If you have correlations for more than one basis for 2 and 3, then transitivity means you will have correlations between 1 and 4 in more than one basis.

I'm pretty sure this paper here evokes the same kind of idea of transitivity:

https://scholar.google.co.uk/scholar?cluster=10636160464314492908&hl=en&as_sdt=0,5&as_vis=1

e.g.

"Alice’s measurement ‘‘steers’’ the state of particle 2, which is sent to Vicky, in turn influencing the state of particle 3 (and hence also particle 4) through Vicky’s Bell-state measurement. This does involve spatial nonlocality (which was not at issue), but no temporal nonlocality. Finally, Bob performs a measurement on particle 4. Like was the case for the Ma et al.-experiment, the outcomes of the first and final measurement will in general not display Bell correlations. [But] If we post-select the subsample where the outcome of Vicky’s Bell-state measurement was ‘‘Bellstate
+’’, however, we do observe Bell correlations:"

"It is important to note that, similarly to the non-delayed case, the
correlations observed in the Ma et al. and Megidish et al. experiments only obtain if we sort the outcomes obtained by Alice and Bob in different subsamples corresponding to the possible outcomes of Vicky’s measurement, and consider the outcomes within each subsample. If we ignore the outcomes of Vicky’s measurement and consider all the outcomes obtained by Alice and Bob together, we will find no correlation. This suggests a different possible explanation of the Bell-type correlations; namely that they are a statistical artefact arising due to this post-selection, rather than any mark of genuine entanglement between particle 1 and particle 4."


DrChinese said:
As you say, "a decision to physically interact" does in fact change which bucket the data point is added to

And this distinction between separability and non-separability exists in the Barandes formulation.

I think something like the following is probably what would happen in the Barandes formulation. But before starting it has to be noted that what Barandes has done so far does not have the different bases or precisely modeled spin so this is a story of how the kinds of elements present in the Barandes theory would deal with entanglement swapping. But at the same time, the central idea of Barandes' theory is that any quantum system can be translated into an indivisible stochastic one so if he has not made an error, the indivisible stochastic model of entanglement swapping should be possible just in virtue of the fact we are talking about quantum systems.

Right, so you have two indivisible stochastic systems 1 & 2 and you let them locally interact, causing a correlation that leads to a non-separable composite system. The two parts of the composite system travel far apart but the correlation is maintained due to the memory of the composite indivisible transition matrix. We can say the same for indivisible stochastic systems 3 & 4.

We do a separable measurement which establishes a one-to-one correspondence for results of 2 & 3 in one basis effectively by picking out pairs of results. No coincidences in other bases are found for 2 & 3 because this requires a non-separable relationship between 2 & 3 which we do not have due to it being a separable measurement. The coincidences in 2 & 3 mean we can follow the following logic: result in 1 implied a result in 2. Result in 2 implies a result in 3, result in 3 implies result in 4. Because 2 & 3 would never show coincidences in other bases, this chain would be broken if we tried to follow it in the other basis.

Or we could do a non-separable measurement on 2 & 3 which not only establishes a one-to-one correspondence in one basis but implies this would be the case in all bases because it picks out a correlation or would-be-coincidences in all bases, the same kind of correlation that was implied by the local interactions that produce entanglement for 1 & 2 or 3 & 4 in the beginning. We can then follow the chain of reasoning suggested before but in all bases. Even if we measure 1(4) and 2(3) in different bases, the correlation between 1 & 4 is implied by the fact that if we had measured 2 in the same basis, we know what the answer would have been. We then know what the answer would have been in 3 which implies the result in 4 if you measure it in the relevant basis. We can then additionally look at the swap in the sense that a non-separable state has been created for 2 & 3. The Bell state measurement also then acts as a division event for systems 1 & 2 and 3 & 4, breaking their respective entanglements. However, we can still note the non-separable correlation present in 1 & 4 (due to the chain of reasoning before) which is just identical to an entanglement. Non-separable systems (entanglements) have been swapped between the 4 particles.

If we do not perform the measurements, no correlations between 1 & 4 occur because there is no one-to-one correspondence. 1 & 4 go through all their possible outcomes they were going to go through as an independent entangled system, 3 & 4 go through all their possible outcomes they were going to go through as an independent entangled system. No one-to-one correspondences of results have been established between 2 & 3 so if you examine all the possible outcomes of 2 and all the possible outcomes of 3 side-by-side, it just looks random because you are not isolating any specific sets of one-to-one correspondences.

Ofcourse, there is no physical collapse in Barandes' system. When the experimenter couples his measurement device to a system in general he cannot choose the measurements he finds. To isolate the individual outcomes of measurements in this formulation as you would need to for a Bell state (or separable) measurement, the only thing you can do is statistical conditioning (which is what Barandes identifies as the formal source of collapse). And when you condition on results of 2 & 3, only then can you follow the chains of correlations or coincidences above allowed respectively by non-separable and separable measurements.

In addition because there is no physical collapse and only statistical conditioning, delays do not matter. The correlations are established at source and just remembered until measurement as systems 1 & 2 or 3 & 4 evolves. It doesn't matter who measured what first because the remembered correlation dictates what is going to happen at measurement. The separable and non-separable measurements then just pick out one-to-one correspondences between 2 & 3.
 
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  • #429
Lord Jestocost said:
Would this “generic discrepancy” - and how in a physical model - elucidate, for example, the experiments on the double-slit diffraction of neutrons?
Its the same as the regular interference in quantum mechanics.
 
  • #430
Lord Jestocost said:
This might explain why Barandes has to use "peculiar" formulations such as "More precisely, interference is nothing more than a generic discrepancy between actual indivisible stochastic dynamics and hypothetically divisible stochastic dynamics."(in https://arxiv.org/abs/2302.10778).:smile:

Would this “generic discrepancy” - and how in a physical model - elucidate, for example, the experiments on the double-slit diffraction of neutrons?
Why neutrons specifically? It could help elucidate something if Barandes gave an interpretation to his indivisibility feature.
 
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  • #431
Of course, you can do a double slit experiment with single electrons, too.

When someone is convinced “that physical models based on classical kinematics combined with stochastic dynamics can replicate all the empirical predictions of textbook quantum theory”, he should show that at least by means of simple examples.
 
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  • #432
Lord Jestocost said:
Of course, you can do a double slit experiment with single electrons, too.

When someone is convinced “that physical models based on classical kinematics combined with stochastic dynamics can replicate all the empirical predictions of textbook quantum theory”, he should show that at least by means of simple examples.
This part isn't surprising to me, that he can replicate predictions of textbook quantum theory.

What's more dubious for me are the claims by @iste in this thread that this how somehow implies particles have definite positions and locality under this interpretation.

If you take the definite positions statement as true then indivisibility implies non-locality, because locality would imply the ability to condition on the particles position at a nearby time.
 
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  • #433
jbergman said:
This part isn't surprising to me, that he can replicate predictions of textbook quantum theory.

What's more dubious for me are the claims by @iste in this thread that this how somehow implies particles have definite positions and locality under this interpretation.

If you take the definite positions statement as true then indivisibility implies non-locality, because locality would imply the ability to condition on the particles position at a nearby time.
In this video Barandes argues his forumulation is no more nor less non-local than standard QM (timestamped to 55:02):
 
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  • #434
jbergman said:
What's more dubious for me are the claims by @iste in this thread that this how somehow implies particles have definite positions and locality under this interpretation.

Yes, as JC_Silver says, Barandes has mentioned in papers that his quantum formulation should be as non-local as quantum. There is nothing about it that directly contradicts Bell's theorem. It should be Bell non-local. What the indivisible stochastic formalism seems to provide more information about is a possible mechanism for Bell non-locality - correlations established by local interactions are remembered without explicit communication in the formalism.

If you utilize collapse in the Barandes formalism (which would be non-physical) it will certainly have an instantaneous effect, but it will be purely statistical conditioning in the same sense as a Bayesian updating a posterior distribution using evidence. That is nothing to do with the evolution of the system or its laws, but purely inferential.

But then you can say the formalism is agnostic on a mechanism for memory.
 
  • #435
iste said:
There is nothing about it that directly contradicts Bell's theorem. It should be Bell non-local. What the indivisible stochastic formalism seems to provide more information about is a possible mechanism for Bell non-locality - correlations established by local interactions are remembered without explicit communication in the formalism.
I find this puzzling. Either "indivisibility" is nonlocal (interactions are communicated from far away faster than light) or things are remembered somehow (this sounds more like superdeterminism, even if Barandes claims that he is not arguing against statistical independence).
 
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  • #436
pines-demon said:
I find this puzzling. Either "indivisibility" is nonlocal (interactions are communicated from far away faster than light) or things are remembered somehow (this sounds more like superdeterminism, even if Barandes claims that he is not arguing against statistical independence).
To me it seems indivisibility is non-local, what I'm having a hard time is understanding what the indivisible process means.
Regular stochastic processes are quite intuitive, but this different approach seems really underresearched and poor of real models that aren't Barande's.

Edit: the indivisible state sounds a lot like superposition
 
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  • #437
In Barandes' stochastic-quantum theorem paper he expresses the indivisibility as a violation of a condition like this:

Σ2 P(3 | 2) P(2 | 1) = P(3 | 1)

So in quantum mechanics:

p(3 | 2) ≠ Σ2 P(3 | 2) (2 | 1)

p(3 | 1) = Σ2 P(3 | 2) (2 | 1) + interference terms

Its the Markov version of consistency conditions for classical stochastic processes to satisfy realism and measurement non-invasiveness. Measurements disturb the system and there is no unique underlying joint probability distribution. Joint probability violations are ubiquitious in all quantum phenomena. Bell, Legget-Garg, Kochen-Specher inequalities, position-momentum non-commutativity. They all mean the same thing like said here:

https://scholar.google.co.uk/scholar?cluster=17313080888273101986&hl=en&as_sdt=0,5&as_vis=1

"As we have discussed, the observational data predicted by quantum mechanics and confirmed by actual experiments consists of families of probability distributions, each defined on different sample spaces, corresponding to the different contexts. Since the contexts overlap, there are relationships between the sample spaces, which are reflected in coherent relationships between the distributions, in the form of consistent marginals. But there is no “global” distribution, defined on a sample space containing all the observable quantities, which accounts for all the empirically observable data."

Earlier in paper they analyze Bell experiments this way. The Barandes condition would apply this to trajectories, and you cannot measure them without disturbing their statistics.

Also I like this article:

https://scholar.google.co.uk/scholar?cluster=11196281894751885989&hl=en&as_sdt=0,5&as_vis=1

Here you see an analysis of multi-time measurements (i.e. the content of the indivisibility conditions) on pg 7 - 14 through the lense of position and momentum measurements which seems to characterize the nature of indivisibility: and I quote pg 11 -

"So the Non-Selective Measurement of the position ˆx at time t = 0 not only has changed immediately the probability distribution of the momenta p, as we have analyzed in b1), but it has changed also the probability distribution of x at any time t > 0. Now the reader may wonder why the probability distributions ρP (x|t) and ρM (x|t) were the same at t = 0, see (3.16)-(3.17), but they are different at any time t > 0. The explanation is that during the evolution, which is given by ˙x = p and couples x with p, the distributions in x are influenced by the initial distributions in p which, as shown in (3.18) and (3.19), are different in the two cases in which we perform, case b), or not perform, case a), the Non-Selective Measurement of ˆx at t = 0. So the Non-Selective Measurement of ˆx influences immediately the distribution of probability of the conjugate variable p. Next, since the momenta p are coupled to x via their equations of motion, the changes in the distribution of p are inherited by the distribution of the positions at any instant of time t > 0."

Intermediate measurements are changing or disturbing the statistics of the system; this also clearly renders it non-Markovian since measurements at 0 change the behavior at any time t > 0. In contrast the classical measurements in the analysis do not disturb the evolution or the statistics of the system. It will remain Markovian presumably. The disturbance in the text seems related to the uncertainty principle; you can imagine that the less precise measurements may not have as disturbing an effect
 
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  • #438
iste said:
In Barandes' stochastic-quantum theorem paper he expresses the indivisibility as a violation of a condition like this:

Σ2 P(3 | 2) P(2 | 1) = P(3 | 1)

So in quantum mechanics:

p(3 | 2) ≠ Σ2 P(3 | 2) (2 | 1)

p(3 | 1) = Σ2 P(3 | 2) (2 | 1) + interference terms
Equation number or page?
 
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  • #439
JC_Silver said:
To me it seems indivisibility is non-local, what I'm having a hard time is understanding what the indivisible process means.
Regular stochastic processes are quite intuitive, but this different approach seems really underresearched and poor of real models that aren't Barande's.

Edit: the indivisible state sounds a lot like superposition
pines-demon said:
I find this puzzling. Either "indivisibility" is nonlocal (interactions are communicated from far away faster than light) or things are remembered somehow (this sounds more like superdeterminism, even if Barandes claims that he is not arguing against statistical independence).
What can be learned from this?

When using physical models which are based on classical concepts – like classical kinematics combined with classical stochastic dynamics – to describe “quantum-mechanical” phenomena, one seems always to run in problems with other classical concepts like Einstein-locality.
 
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  • #440
Lord Jestocost said:
What can be learned from this?

When using physical models which are based on classical concepts – like classical kinematics combined with classical stochastic dynamics – to describe “quantum-mechanical” phenomena, one seems always to run in problems with other classical concepts like Einstein-locality.
I do not know what you are arguing for or against here. What am saying is that Barandes interpretation (not the math) is still very void. It is as weird as quantum mechanics, with the same predictions, so it suffers from the same interpretational problems when dealing with entanglement. Stochastical indivisibility does not have still a clear physical picture (at least I have not found it in this thread).

Edit: Barandes says that it deflates the weirdness of quantum mechanics, that now everything can be explained with stochastic motion and classical stuff. I still do not see the picture that he wants to draw.
 
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  • #441
pines-demon said:
I do not know what you are arguing for or against here. What am saying is that Barandes interpretation (not the math) is still very void. It is as weird as quantum mechanics, with the same predictions, so it suffers from the same interpretational problems when dealing with entanglement. Stochastical indivisibility does not have still a clear physical picture (at least I have not found it in this thread).

Edit: Barandes says that it deflates the weirdness of quantum mechanics, that now everything can be explained with stochastic motion and classical stuff. I still do not see the picture that he wants to draw.
My two cents is that it reinforces the view that all the "weirdness" of quantum mechanics (which by weird I mean outside common sense) such as wavefunctions, hilbert spaces, superposition, everything, are all just tools for description and not real objects as some seem to argue for.
In this non-Markovian stochastic model, particles are indeed doing something funky, they are moving (or changing states) in a way that cannot be predicted perfectly by the stochastic model we use, and that imperfection generates these tools we use to study the systems.
After reading a bit, non-Markovian stochastic models seem to be used to predict behavior of things like animal population, where the past history of an animal dictates its behaviour, but cannot be predicted as no one has complete knowledge of what each and every animal is doing, how much food each plant is producing, how many deadly diseases are in the area and how they will mutate, etc.

Since the system has a "memory" of past events, it cannot be modeled as a Markovian process. On top of that, Barandes' argues that his math is also indivisible, meaning that between interactions, we cannot know what a system is doing, and when we try to learn it, we run into the wavefunction.

So what I believe is the reason Barandes says that it "deflates the weirdness" I think he means we now have one single culprit (the indivisible state) instead of having the particles literaly behave as waves in some mathematical imaginary space where multiple mechanisms are also real. Now none of them are real and only the indivisibility state is real.

Or I misread the whole thing, I'm a high school teacher after all.
 
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  • #442
JC_Silver said:
So what I believe is the reason Barandes says that it "deflates the weirdness" I think he means we now have one single culprit (the indivisible state) instead of having the particles literaly behave as waves in some mathematical imaginary space where multiple mechanisms are also real. Now none of them are real and only the indivisibility state is real.
For me it is just semantics. In the end he has to provide a real classical example where his non-Markovian indivisible process applies and then we can interpret how that "feels" when interpreting quantum mechanics that way. Is it like if we did not know of some hidden mail service between particles? Is it like if the detectors were conspiring behind the scenes?

The all encompassing stochastic indivisible force that enforces quantum mechanical results sounds just as weird as a wave function.

Edit: important reminder here, I am under the impression that Barandes is NOT saying that particles exist and the rest of quantum is the stochasticity, like some kind of stochastic pilot wave theory. He clearly says that he is agnostic of what constitute nature, his mathematics could apply to fields or qubits or whatever you want.
 
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  • #443
pines-demon said:
For me it is just semantics. In the end he has to provide a real classical example where his non-Markovian indivisible process applies and then we can interpret how that "feels" when interpreting quantum mechanics that way. Is it like if we did not know of some hidden mail service between particles? Is it like if the detectors were conspiring behind the scenes?

The all encompassing stochastic indivisible force that enforces quantum mechanical results sounds just as weird as a wave function.

Edit: important reminder here, I am under the impression that Barandes is NOT saying that particles exist and the rest of quantum is the stochasticity, like some kind of stochastic pilot wave theory. He clearly says that he is agnostic of what constitute nature, his mathematics could apply to fields or qubits or whatever you want.
What he promises and I hope we'll get in the future are different approximations, like, if the wavefunction is how the particles we know behave inside non-Markovian stochastic processes, is there a particle who follows a different approximation, which is also inside non-markovian stochastic processes? Is gravity a non-markovian stochastic process that can't be fit together with QM because it follows a different side of the non-Markovian processes? Is there a better way to say non-markovian stochastic processes that does not involve writing the whole thing?
 
  • #444
JC_Silver said:
Is there a better way to say non-markovian stochastic processes that does not involve writing the whole thing?
From the sake of this conversation, let us call indivisible non-Markovian stochastic processes, INMS processes.
 
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  • #445
JC_Silver said:
In this video Barandes argues his forumulation is no more nor less non-local than standard QM (timestamped to 55:02):

Great video. They asked many of the same questions we have been asking at the end. Barendes was fairly non-committal as to what this means as an interpretation. At this point, I would describe it as an alternative mathematical formulation of QM using stochastics. And it is interesting that it essentially solves the measurement problem and derives the born rule given his assumptions.

But the ontology of it isn't very clear.
 
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  • #446
pines-demon said:
Equation number or page?
https://scholar.google.co.uk/scholar?cluster=16476305313441553503&hl=en&as_sdt=0,5&as_vis=1

Page 5:

"The stochastic map Γ will not be assumed to have anything like a Markov or divisibility property. More precisely, no assumption will be made that given any pair of times t, t′, there will exist a time t′′ such that the following Markov property holds:"

Then I have removed some of the baggage on the figure -

Γ(t) = Σ Γ(t′′)Γ(t′)
 
  • #447
JC_Silver said:
After reading a bit, non-Markovian stochastic models seem to be used to predict behavior of things like animal population
....
Since the system has a "memory" of past events, it cannot be modeled as a Markovian process.
The obvious generalization is dynamics of systems involving interacting agents/obserers. This is why one can find examples in biology or even finance market. Already in other threads i quoted some papers relating violating of bell inequalities in financial systems etc, relating to insider information. This is all in a way "classical things" - suggesting that quantum interactions can emerge if you allow certain interactions.

There is a "memory effect" also in financial markets, which leads to non-markovian behaviour.

So instead of trying to understand what strange ontology these waveinterference of "complex wave" really are - an alternative is start thinking that pherpaps PARTS of any systems, interacts at least "as if" they are communicating and processing and keeping information about each other. And trying to understand that deeper, gets very different than trying to focus on the actual "wavefunctions" as it they were actual waves, which they clearly are not. This is my lesson from all this. The only "problem" is to try to understand, how on earth a proton can store and hold relative information about say nearby electrons or other protons or neutrons? and how is it encoded?

I think we need to seek "causal understanding" in between interacting parts; not the causal rules on "system level" as I think that will never be more than "effective" I think?

The reason agent based models are also used in other disciplines, like social interactions is that it gives more insight on individual level. System level inferences; can infer poulation laws, but they offer no mechanisms of understanding from individual level (by analogy; from the perspective of a given actual observer).

/Fredrik
 
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  • #448
Fra said:
The obvious generalization is dynamics of systems involving interacting agents/obserers. This is why one can find examples in biology or even finance market. Already in other threads i quoted some papers relating violating of bell inequalities in financial systems etc, relating to insider information. This is all in a way "classical things" - suggesting that quantum interactions can emerge if you allow certain interactions.
Sure but can you or Barandes provide a simple example of INMS processes? What does it look like?

Fra said:
There is a "memory effect" also in financial markets, which leads to non-markovian behaviour.
Again a simple example of how that memory effect emerges would be great.
Fra said:
So instead of trying to understand what strange ontology these waveinterference of "complex wave" really are - an alternative is start thinking that pherpaps PARTS of any systems, interacts at least "as if" they are communicating and processing and keeping information about each other. And trying to understand that deeper, gets very different than trying to focus on the actual "wavefunctions" as it they were actual waves, which they clearly are not. This is my lesson from all this. The only "problem" is to try to understand, how on earth a proton can store and hold relative information about say nearby electrons or other protons or neutrons? and how is it encoded?

I think we need to seek "causal understanding" in between interacting parts; not the causal rules on "system level" as I think that will never be more than "effective" I think?

The reason agent based models are also used in other disciplines, like social interactions is that it gives more insight on individual level. System level inferences; can infer poulation laws, but they offer no mechanisms of understanding from individual level (by analogy; from the perspective of a given actual observer).
are you proposing some sort of "hard" emergent macroproperty that cannot be explained from the micro theory?
 
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  • #449
iste said:
https://scholar.google.co.uk/scholar?cluster=16476305313441553503&hl=en&as_sdt=0,5&as_vis=1

Page 5:

"The stochastic map Γ will not be assumed to have anything like a Markov or divisibility property. More precisely, no assumption will be made that given any pair of times t, t′, there will exist a time t′′ such that the following Markov property holds:"

Then I have removed some of the baggage on the figure -

Γ(t) = Σ Γ(t′′)Γ(t′)
I am under the impression that in your previous comment, you compared this equation with the equations of probability in quantum mechanics, but the dictionary between the two probabilities is more complicated as it involves projection and time-evolution operators (eq. 77).
 
  • #450
pines-demon said:
important reminder here, I am under the impression that Barandes is NOT saying that particles exist and the rest of quantum is the stochasticity, like some kind of stochastic pilot wave theory. He clearly says that he is agnostic of what constitute nature, his mathematics could apply to fields or qubits or whatever you want.
jbergman said:
But the ontology of it isn't very clear.

The Barandes formulation is generic enough to apply to anything, and I think I even said ages ago in this thread that maybe it could be applied in social sciences where rudimental quantum theory has been used to describe human behavior in the last 2 decades.

But regardless of what it is applied to it still entails definite configurations. First line of one of his papers:

"The theory of stochastic processes describes the phenomenological behavior of systems with definite configurations that evolve probabilistically in time."

"Phenomenological" suggests agnosticism about the underlying cause of behavior; nonetheless, the system is always in a definite configuration. It doesn't matter if there is a deeper ontology than particles, if the description is valid for particles then it means they will be point-particles... or finite size... but always in definirte positions, the wavefunction mostly a pragmatic tool.

pines-demon said:
I am under the impression that in your previous comment, you compared this equation with the equations of probability in quantum mechanics, but the dictionary between the two probabilities is more complicated as it involves projection and time-evolution operators (eq. 77).

Not sure what you are implying but the left side of equations 35 and 77 are the same. 77 implies 35 does not always hold.
 
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