Solving Physics Problem: Work Done with Force and Displacement

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The discussion revolves around the calculation of work done in a physics problem involving force and displacement. The original poster questions why the book uses a specific method to calculate work, given that work is typically defined as the product of force, displacement, and the cosine of the angle between them. It is clarified that both methods of calculating work—using the angle and using potential energy—yield the same result, particularly when considering the incline and the vertical distance. The conversation highlights that while the book's approach may seem misleading, it ultimately leads to the correct answer. The participants express appreciation for the clarification provided.
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Hello Peace be upon you

http://img8.imageshack.us/img8/9198/workdone.jpg

The first part of this problem is OK but I'm asking about the second part
We know that the work done is F *d*cosine the angle between the force direction and
the displacement direction .So why the book calculated the work done in this way?

I know that the work done in this case is the potential energy which is (m*g*d) and this does works! But my problem is why the book calculated the work done in this way?

Another way :
Its given that the angle between force direction and the displacement direction is 60 then the result is the same.
So Are all of these ways right?
I hope you can understand my problem
Thanks so much
 
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Yes, it's all the same, either it's work = force times displacement times cos 60, where the displacement, d, is the distance along the incline. Since d =15/cos 60, then work = (15mg/cos60)(cos60), which is just Work = 15mg. Thus, the work done against gravity can be calcualted from W=mg(vertical distance) = 15mg. I agree that the theta = 0 in the book solution is somewhat misleading. Note also that the work done by gravity is (- delta U_g).
 
I agree that the theta = 0 in the book solution is somewhat misleading.
Yeah this was exactly what I'm asking about

Thanks so much
this really helped
 
Kindly see the attached pdf. My attempt to solve it, is in it. I'm wondering if my solution is right. My idea is this: At any point of time, the ball may be assumed to be at an incline which is at an angle of θ(kindly see both the pics in the pdf file). The value of θ will continuously change and so will the value of friction. I'm not able to figure out, why my solution is wrong, if it is wrong .
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