A SIMPLE integral, but I want a nice way to solve.

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves finding the antiderivative of the function p(t) = cos(t) + (1)/(cos^2(t)), which falls under the subject area of calculus, specifically integration techniques.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss various methods of integration, including direct integration and substitution. Some express uncertainty about the validity of certain approaches, particularly regarding the use of substitution and the handling of differentials.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different integration techniques and questioning the assumptions behind certain methods. Some have offered guidance on potential approaches, while others have raised concerns about the complexity of specific substitutions.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of the original poster's background in calculus and the fact that they have not yet covered u-substitution in their course. Additionally, some participants note the potential circular reasoning involved in certain integration methods.

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Homework Statement



p(t) = cos(t) + (1)/(cos^2(t)

Find antiderivative.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Alright, I'm just starting calc 2. I thoroughly covered a lot of integration involving u substitution, and we have not started that in calc 2 yet. U substitution is so ingrained into my mind right now.

Wolfram gives sin(t) + tan(t) which I agree with by quickly going through differentiation, but what rules of integration would you apply? I'm guessing some algebra or trig identity?
 
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That p(t) is exactly equal to cos(x) + sec2(x). This can be done simply with direct integration.
 
You can also solve it like this:

[tex]p(t) = cos(t) + \frac 1{cos^2(t)}[/tex]

Substitute u=cos(t):

[tex]p(t)=u+u^{-2}[/tex][tex]\int p(t)= \int u+u^{-2}=...[/tex]

That's a possible way if you wan't to use substitution. :smile:
 
mstud said:
You can also solve it like this:

[tex]p(t) = cos(t) + \frac 1{cos^2(t)}[/tex]

Substitute u=cos(t):

[tex]p(t)=u+u^{-2}[/tex][tex]\int p(t)= \int u+u^{-2}=...[/tex]

That's a possible way if you want to use substitution. :smile:
If u=cos(t) , then du = -sin(t) dt . Furthermore, [itex]\displaystyle \sin(t) = \sqrt{1-\cos^2(t)} = \sqrt{1-u^2}\,.[/itex]

Therefore, [itex]\displaystyle \int p(t)\,dt= -\int \left(u+u^{-2}\right)\sqrt{1-u^2}\,du\,.[/itex]

So, that's probably not the way to go.

See Yuqing's post for a straight forward method.
 
Last edited:
mstud said:
You can also solve it like this:

[tex]p(t) = cos(t) + \frac 1{cos^2(t)}[/tex]

Substitute u=cos(t):

[tex]p(t)=u+u^{-2}[/tex][tex]\int p(t)= \int u+u^{-2}=...[/tex]

That's a possible way if you wan't to use substitution. :smile:
Sorry but that's invalid specifically because that is a "substitution" but you ignored the "dx" and "du". If [itex]u= cos(t)[/itex] then [itex]du= -sin(t)dt[/itex]. To integrate [itex]\int (cos(t)+ 1/cos(t)) dt[/itex] and letting u= cos(t) you would have [itex]\int (u+ 1/u^2)dx[/itex] and substituting for dx will give you a very complex integral.
 
Here's a solution. However, it does require the circular reasoning that the derivative of tan is sec2. If you can ignore that though, it's legit:

[tex]\int sec^{2}x dx = \int \sec^{2}x \frac{\tan x}{\tan x} dx[/tex]

Letting u = tanx, du = sec2x dx, we get:

[itex]\int \frac{u}{u} du = \int du =[/itex] ...
 
gb7nash said:
Here's a solution. However, it does require the circular reasoning that the derivative of tan is sec2. If you can ignore that though, it's legit:

[tex]\int sec^{2}x dx = \int \sec^{2}x \frac{\tan x}{\tan x} dx[/tex]

Letting u = tanx, du = sec2x dx, we get:

[itex]\int \frac{u}{u} du = \int du =[/itex] ...

But the "tan x/tan x" is irrelevant. All you are doing is saying [itex]d(tan(x)= sec^2(x)dx[/itex] so [itex]\int sec^2(x)dx= \int d(tan x)= tan(x)+ C[/itex].
 
gb7nash said:
Here's a solution. However, it does require the circular reasoning that the derivative of tan is sec2. If you can ignore that though, it's legit:
...

Letting u = tanx, du = sec2x dx, we get:
...

I had a student who would routinely carry out his substitutions this far. At first it caught me off guard. Then I caught on to what he was doing. He would pick u so that du/dx was equal to the whole integrand, so that he would get: [itex]\displaystyle \int\,\frac{du}{dx}\,dx=\int\,du=u+C\,.[/itex]

From that time on, I would often refer to this as "Huang's method" , crediting that student.
 
Last edited:
HallsofIvy said:
But the "tan x/tan x" is irrelevant. All you are doing is saying [itex]d(tan(x)= sec^2(x)dx[/itex] so [itex]\int sec^2(x)dx= \int d(tan x)= tan(x)+ C[/itex].

Good point. I didn't realize this.
 

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