mattmns
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Hello. We got a review today in abstract algebra, and I am stuck on two problems.
1) Let f: G -> H be a surjective homomorphism of groups. Prove that if K is a normal subgroup of G, then f(K) is a normal subgroup of H. Where f(K)= {f(k): k \inK}
The entire f(K) part is really throwing me off.
We know:
G and H are groups
K is a normal subgroup of G
Also H is a normal subgroup because im_f = H (because f is surjective)
The real problem is I don't quite understand the whole f(K) part. Any ideas about what f(K) is, and any ideas about the problem?
2) If H and K are normal subgroups of a group G satisfying H\capK = {1}, prove that hk = kh for all h\inH and k\inK.
This one is really throwing me off.
We Know:
H and K are normal subgroups of a group G.
H\capK = {1} is a normal subgroup of G. (because of a previous problem I had proved).
Also, HK is a subgroup (by a theorem from my book)
For this problem it seems that it would be sufficient to show that G is abelian, but I am not sure how we would do that. Or maybe just use some general properties algebraically to show that hk=kh. I am not sure how we are supposed to use the H\capK = {1} though.
Any ideas about this one?
Thanks!
1) Let f: G -> H be a surjective homomorphism of groups. Prove that if K is a normal subgroup of G, then f(K) is a normal subgroup of H. Where f(K)= {f(k): k \inK}
The entire f(K) part is really throwing me off.
We know:
G and H are groups
K is a normal subgroup of G
Also H is a normal subgroup because im_f = H (because f is surjective)
The real problem is I don't quite understand the whole f(K) part. Any ideas about what f(K) is, and any ideas about the problem?
2) If H and K are normal subgroups of a group G satisfying H\capK = {1}, prove that hk = kh for all h\inH and k\inK.
This one is really throwing me off.
We Know:
H and K are normal subgroups of a group G.
H\capK = {1} is a normal subgroup of G. (because of a previous problem I had proved).
Also, HK is a subgroup (by a theorem from my book)
For this problem it seems that it would be sufficient to show that G is abelian, but I am not sure how we would do that. Or maybe just use some general properties algebraically to show that hk=kh. I am not sure how we are supposed to use the H\capK = {1} though.
Any ideas about this one?
Thanks!
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