Sorry I don't know how to use symbols on this site so bear with me:
the question is does the following series converge: sum of sin(1/n^2) where n goes from 1 to infinity
Limit comparison test, maybe others
The Attempt at a Solution
Okay I think I got the solution but I'm not sure if the logic is correct. I divided sin(1/n^2) by the p-series (1/n).
This comes out to n/sin(1/n^2)...the top will go to infinity and the bottom will go to 0 as n goes to infinity, so the series divergies. Because 1/n also diverges (harmonic series) sin(1/n^2) also diverges. Is this right?