Amplitude of Sound Waves from Two Sources at a Point

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on the calculation of the amplitude of sound waves from two sources, A and B, at a point P, where the distances from the sources are nearly equal. The amplitude is derived as 2D_M cos(π/λ (r_A - r_B)), indicating that it varies with the position based on the phase difference between the waves. Participants express confusion about the presence of a 1/r_A term in the amplitude expression, questioning its dimensional correctness. Ultimately, it is clarified that the maximum displacement, or amplitude, is correctly represented without the 1/r_A term, emphasizing the importance of understanding wave interference patterns. The conversation highlights the nuances of sound wave behavior in interference scenarios.
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[SOLVED] Amplitude of Sound Waves from Two Sources at a Point

Problem. Two sources, A and B, emit sound waves, in phase, each of wavelength \lambda and amplitude D_M. Consider a point P that is a distance r_A from A and r_B from B. Show that if r_A and r_B are nearly equal (r_A - r_B \ll r_A). then the amplitude varies approximately with position as

\frac{2D_M}{r_A} \, \cos \frac{\pi}{\lambda} (r_A - r_B)

Let D(x, t) be the function that describes the displacement of the sound waves at some time t and a distance x from the source. I figure that the displacement at point P must be D(r_A, t) + D(r_B, t) right? One thing I'm noticing is that the expression for the amplitude given in the problem statement does not vary with time. What gives?
 
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If I look at the situation when t = 0, I get that the displacement at P is

D_M \sin kr_A + D_M \sin kr_B = 2D_M \sin \frac{\pi}{\lambda} (r_A + r_B) \cos \frac{\pi}{\lambda} (r_A - r_B)

How in the world does the sine expression simplify to 1/rA?
 
This problem describes the double slit interference pattern at a point near the central maximum. The signal might vary with time, but per definition the amplitude is the maximum (minimum) strength of the resulting signal.
 
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Interesting. However, I'm still puzzled as why the sine term simplifies to 1/rA.
 
I can get close :

The phase difference, \delta, between the two waves at the point P will be small under the stated conditions. Since the amplitude of the resultant at P is proportional to

\cos^2(\frac{\delta}{2})

which under the stated conditions reduces to

\cos(\frac{\delta}{2})

The phase difference at the point P is given by

\delta = k \Delta r

with the wave number k = \frac{2 \pi}{\lambda}. We therefore have that

\cos(\frac{\pi \Delta r}{\lambda})

for the above mentioned.

I am very suspicious about the \frac{1}{r} term in the given solution, since the dimension is then incorrect.
 
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andrevdh said:
Since the amplitude of the resultant at P is proportional to

\cos^2(\frac{\delta}{2})
How do you know that? Where did you get that expression from?

I am very suspicious about the \frac{1}{r} term in the given solution, since the dimension is then incorrect.

You're right. Perhaps it is incorrect. I think we can safely ignore the 1/rA term.
 
It just hit me. The problem wants the maximum displacement, i.e. the amplitude at point P. The displacement at P is given by:

2D_M \cos \frac{\pi}{\lambda} (r_A - r_B) \sin (\pi / \lambda (r_A + r_B) + \omega t)

and the maximum displacement or amplitude is just

2D_M \cos \frac{\pi}{\lambda} (r_A - r_B)

Duh!
 
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