- #1
Tony Hau
- 107
- 30
So in my textbook on oscillations, it says that angular frequency can be defined for a damped oscillator. The formula is given by:
Angular Frequency = 2π/(2T), where T is the time between adjacent zero x-axis crossings.
In this case, the angular frequency has meaning for a given time period.
Okay, what I do not understand is that normally, angular frequency is something defined for periodic motion, in which the oscillator passes twice through a given point with the same velocity and completes a whole cycle. Why is it also feasible to define a period for damped oscillator as it will never passes through a given point obviously. Secondly, what does the sentence 'has meaning for a given time period' exactly mean?
Angular Frequency = 2π/(2T), where T is the time between adjacent zero x-axis crossings.
In this case, the angular frequency has meaning for a given time period.
Okay, what I do not understand is that normally, angular frequency is something defined for periodic motion, in which the oscillator passes twice through a given point with the same velocity and completes a whole cycle. Why is it also feasible to define a period for damped oscillator as it will never passes through a given point obviously. Secondly, what does the sentence 'has meaning for a given time period' exactly mean?