Angular Momentum Problem in Dirac Notation

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on solving an angular momentum problem in Dirac notation related to the hydrogen atom. The user references key equations such as the Hamiltonian eigenvalue equation H|ψ> = E|ψ> and the angular momentum operators L²|ψ> = l(l+1)ħ² and Lz|ψ> = mlħ|ψ>. The user successfully identifies the eigenvalues for the Hamiltonian, L², and Lz, but seeks clarification on the normalization of the state vector and the multiplication of bra and ket vectors. The final normalization constant is determined to be A = 1/6.

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  • Understanding of Dirac notation and quantum mechanics
  • Familiarity with angular momentum operators in quantum mechanics
  • Knowledge of normalization conditions for quantum states
  • Basic concepts of eigenvalues and eigenstates in quantum systems
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  • Study the normalization of quantum states in Dirac notation
  • Explore angular momentum in quantum mechanics, focusing on hydrogen atom states
  • Learn about the properties of eigenvalues and eigenstates in quantum systems
  • Review the mathematical operations involving bra and ket vectors
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Students and professionals in quantum mechanics, particularly those studying angular momentum and Dirac notation, as well as educators looking for examples of normalization in quantum states.

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Homework Statement


http://img857.imageshack.us/img857/2079/dirac.png

Homework Equations



H|ψ> = E|ψ>
L^{2}|ψ> = l(l+1)\hbar^{2}|ψ>
L_{z}|ψ> = m_{l}\hbar|ψ>

The Attempt at a Solution


I know this problem is very simple since I've seen a very similar problem a while ago but I've completed forgot how to do it over the winter break.
As far as normalization goes its <ψ|ψ> = 1, so I simply multiply the given ket vector by the bra vector of the same state. However I can't for the life of me remember how the bra and ket vectors multiply to an equation is which you just solve for A. Say for the 3rd term, 2|ψ_{2,1,-1}> represents n=1, l=1, m_{l} = -1
So then the Hamiltionian eigenvalue is 1, the L^{2} eigenvalue is 1(1+1)\hbar^{2} = 2\hbar^{2} and the L_{z} eigenvalue is -\hbar but how do I put all this together?

FYI this is for the hydrogen atom |ψ_{n,l,m_{l}}>
 
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This doesn't appear to be an angular momentum problem.

If you have a state c|n>, its corresponding bra is c*<n|, thus the normalization requirement is c*c = <n|n>. And remember orthogonality of eigenstates, <n|n'>= 1 if n=n' and 0 if n=/=n'.
 
Thats what I originally thought but I kept thinking i was missing something lol. So is it just
A^2(6+1+4+9+16) = 1
A= 1/6
 

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