Angular Momentum squared operator (L^2) eigenvalues?

In summary, for the angular-momentum-squared operator (L2) in the hydrogen 2s and 2px orbitals, the eigenvalues are 0 and 2ħ2, respectively. The eigenvalue is defined as a scalar value that corresponds to an eigenfunction of the operator. The correct equation for the 2px orbital should include the angular part, B (r/a0)e-r/(2a0)sinθcosφ.
  • #1
terp.asessed
127
3

Homework Statement


Find the eigenvalues of the angular-momentum-squared operator (L2) for hydrogen 2s and 2px orbitals...

Homework Equations


Ψ2s = A (2-r/a0)e-r/(2a0)
Ψ2px = B (r/a0)e-r/(2a0)

The Attempt at a Solution


If I am not wrong, is the use of L2 in eigenfunction L2Ψ = ħ2 l(l+1) Ψ?

...so I wonder if eigenvalues are l(l+1) from this part, ħ2 l(l+1) Ψ, as in:

for Ψ2s, because for s orbital, l = 0--> l(l+1) = 0(0+1) = 0
for Ψ2px, because for p orbital, l = 1--> l(l+1) = 1(1+1) = 2 ?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
terp.asessed said:

Homework Equations


Ψ2s = A (2-r/a0)e-r/(2a0)
Ψ2px = B (r/a0)e-r/(2a0)
That's only the radial part. You are missing the angular part, which is essential ;)

terp.asessed said:

The Attempt at a Solution


If I am not wrong, is the use of L2 in eigenfunction L2Ψ = ħ2 l(l+1) Ψ?

...so I wonder if eigenvalues are l(l+1) from this part, ħ2 l(l+1) Ψ, as in:

for Ψ2s, because for s orbital, l = 0--> l(l+1) = 0(0+1) = 0
for Ψ2px, because for p orbital, l = 1--> l(l+1) = 1(1+1) = 2 ?
How is an eigenvalue defined?
 
  • #3
DrClaude said:
That's only the radial part. You are missing the angular part, which is essential
OMG, I was like, why does the equation look funny----the correct one for Ψ2px would be B (r/a0)e-r/(2a0)sinθcosφ, right?

DrClaude said:
How is an eigenvalue defined?
Also, as how an eigenvalue is defined...well, from one previous eigenfunction example I solved, the one involving Hamiltonian operator, HΨ = EΨ, E is the eigenvalue?
So, is the eigenvalue for Ψ2px2?
 
  • #4
terp.asessed said:
OMG, I was like, why does the equation look funny----the correct one for Ψ2px would be B (r/a0)e-r/(2a0)sinθcosφ, right?
Right.

terp.asessed said:
Also, as how an eigenvalue is defined...well, from one previous eigenfunction example I solved, the one involving Hamiltonian operator, HΨ = EΨ, E is the eigenvalue?
Yes. For an operator ##\hat{A}##, ##\hat{A} \psi = a \psi## where ##a## is a scalar means that ##\psi## is an eigenfunction of ##\hat{A}## and ##a## its corresponding eigenvalue.

terp.asessed said:
So, is the eigenvalue for Ψ2px2?
Yes.

I don't know what the level of the question is, so I don't know how simple the answer can be. If this is an advanced problem, you probably are expected to actually derive the eigenvalue.
 
  • Like
Likes terp.asessed
  • #5
Thank you! I am quite surprised myself at how simple the answer turns out to be...but still thank you.
 
Back
Top