Another proof on self adjointness

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the non-existence of a self-adjoint operator T in L(R3) that satisfies specific mappings of vectors in R3. The original poster expresses difficulty in conceptualizing such an operator given the conditions provided.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of T mapping certain vectors to zero and others to themselves, questioning the dimensionality of the nullspace and the nature of the mapping. There are discussions about the properties of self-adjoint operators and the inner product relationships involved.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants examining different interpretations of the operator's behavior and its implications. Some guidance on the properties of self-adjoint operators has been offered, but there is no explicit consensus on the existence of such an operator.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the constraints of the problem, including the definitions of self-adjointness and the implications of specific mappings. There is a recognition of the need for clarity regarding the dimensionality of the image and nullspace of the operator.

evilpostingmong
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Homework Statement


Prove that there does not exist a self-adjoint operator T ∈ L(R3)
such that T(1, 2, 3) = (0, 0, 0) and T(2, 5, 7) = (2, 5, 7).

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I'm having trouble seeing that there is an actual operator, self adjoint or not,
that can do this. I mean, according to this, T maps from R^3 to R^3
but because it maps to R^3 and not to any subspace of R^3 (since it can map (2 5 7 ) to itself), its nullspace must be dim 0. The thing is, since (1 2 3) cannot be in the nullspace
of T, T must be a zero transformation or its matrix might have [1 1 -1] for all three rows. But that can't happen if T(2 5 7)=(2 5 7). I mean, if T cannot exist, then neither can its adjoint.
 
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evilpostingmong said:
I mean, according to this, T maps from R^3 to R^3
but because it maps to R^3 and not to any subspace of R^3 (since it can map (2 5 7 ) to itself), its nullspace must be dim 0.


I'm not quite sure what you mean by this. Just because it maps to R3 doesn't mean that it has to map onto R3. Or maybe you mean something else, but still, knowing that one vector gets mapped to itself doesn't mean that no other vector can be mapped to zero (unless I'm missing something).

Still, despite your misgivings, the proof is pretty straight-forward - all it takes is using T's identity as self-adjoint operator in conjunction with the properties of the inner product.
 
cipher42 said:
I'm not quite sure what you mean by this. Just because it maps to R3 doesn't mean that it has to map onto R3. Or maybe you mean something else, but still, knowing that one vector gets mapped to itself doesn't mean that no other vector can be mapped to zero (unless I'm missing something).

Still, despite your misgivings, the proof is pretty straight-forward - all it takes is using T's identity as self-adjoint operator in conjunction with the properties of the inner product.

Yeah that's what I meant to say: it maps onto R^3 and not some 2 or 1 or 0 dimensional
subspace of R^3 in R^3 since T(257)=(257). Just started to get some coffee in me,
so my wordings were a bit messed up. I'm working on this right now.
 
evilpostingmong said:
Yeah that's what I meant to say: it maps onto R^3 and not some 2 or 1 or 0 dimensional
subspace of R^3 in R^3 since T(257)=(257). Just started to get some coffee in me,
so my wordings were a bit messed up. I'm working on this right now.

Why not? Is your argument that if, for some v, Tv=v, then T must map onto R3? I'm not sure I see that.

In our case, v = (2,5,7) and Tv=v, but all this gives us is that the one-dimensional subspace spanned by v (namely all vectors of the form av, for some scalar a) gets mapped to 0 (and Tv=0 only when a=0). We don't know anything about vectors outside of this subspace. It would not be a contradiction if dim(null(T)) were not zero.
 
Ok <T(1 2 3), (2 5 7)>=0. For <(1 2 3), T(2 5 7)> to=<T(1 2 3), (2 5 7)>,
<(1 2 3), T(2 5 7)> must=0. But <(1 2 3), T(2 5 7)>=<(1 2 3), (2 5 7)>.
So T is not self adjoint since <T(1 2 3), (2 5 7)>=/=<(1 2 3 ), T(2 5 7)>.
 
evilpostingmong said:
Ok <T(1 2 3), (2 5 7)>=0. For <(1 2 3), T(2 5 7)> to=<T(1 2 3), (2 5 7)>,
<(1 2 3), T(2 5 7)> must=0. But <(1 2 3), T(2 5 7)>=<(1 2 3), (2 5 7)>.
So T is not self adjoint since <T(1 2 3), (2 5 7)>=/=<(1 2 3 ), T(2 5 7)>.

Yup, that's dead-on with the proof (though you might want to throw the word 'positive-definite' in there somewhere for clarity). Though I'm still not sure that no such operator exists :smile:
 
cipher42 said:
Yup, that's dead-on with the proof (though you might want to throw the word 'positive-definite' in there somewhere for clarity). Though I'm still not sure that no such operator exists :smile:

Yeah, what I don't understand is when you said "In our case, v = (2,5,7) and Tv=v, but all this gives us is that the one-dimensional subspace spanned by v (namely all vectors of the form av, for some scalar a) gets mapped to 0". T(2 5 7) doesn't get mapped to zero and
a=1.
 
I was just trying to make sure I understood your argument and then state what I thought could be drawn from your premises. You say

evilpostingmong said:
Yeah that's what I meant to say: it maps onto R^3 and not some 2 or 1 or 0 dimensional
subspace of R^3 in R^3 since T(257)=(257). Just started to get some coffee in me,
so my wordings were a bit messed up. I'm working on this right now.

So your argument is that because T(2,5,7)=(2,5,7), the map is onto R^3, right?

I'm just saying that all you have shown is that Tv=v for one single v (namely v=(2,5,7)), and I don't see how that is a strong enough premise to conclude that T maps onto R^3. Obviously, with v=(2,5,7) and some scalar a, T(av)=aT(v)=av, but v does not span all of R^3. You have no idea what happens to other vectors that are not multiples of v. It could easily be the case that other vectors - that is to say, those not of the form av for some a - could be mapped to zero, so a large number of vectors would be without preimages under T (slightly awkward terminology for linear algebra, but hopefully you see what I mean).
 

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