- #1
nmsurobert
- 288
- 36
We were discussing apparent mass loss in water in class yesterday. A student asked if apparent mass loss happens in water, does it also happen in air? And if it does happen in air then why do we not compensate for that when determining the mass of an object in air.
I did some rough math trying to solve for the mass of an object in a vacuum assuming that the object would weigh more in the vacuum versus air because air does provide a buoyant force. My envelope math shows an apparent mass loss of .0001 g where the object is experiencing mass loss due to the buoyant force of air. However, I don't think its right. I would image that there is conceptual problems associated with what I calculated.
My question is the same question that my student had, does an object experience apparent mass loss due to the buoyant force of air and if so is it ever taken into account?
I did some rough math trying to solve for the mass of an object in a vacuum assuming that the object would weigh more in the vacuum versus air because air does provide a buoyant force. My envelope math shows an apparent mass loss of .0001 g where the object is experiencing mass loss due to the buoyant force of air. However, I don't think its right. I would image that there is conceptual problems associated with what I calculated.
My question is the same question that my student had, does an object experience apparent mass loss due to the buoyant force of air and if so is it ever taken into account?