Belt friction between two pulleys.

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the relationship between tensions T1 and T2 in a belt friction scenario involving two pulleys. The equation T1/T2 = e^u0 is established, where T1 represents the tight side tension. A participant questions why T1 is set to 1 to derive T2 = e^u0, leading to clarification that T2 = T1e^-µθ is the correct formulation. The confusion arises from the dimensional analysis of the equation, emphasizing the need for a dimensionless number in the context of belt friction.

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Oakwater
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Homework Statement

http://imageshack.us/m/135/2262/beltz.jpg

I do no understand as shown in the above picture why T1 = 1 to make e^u0 = e^-u0, could anyone offer an explanation as to why this is the case?

Thanks

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The Attempt at a Solution

 
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As far as I can see what has been done is that given that T1/T2 = e^u0 then T1/e^u0 = T2.
Knowing that T1 is tightside tension and therefore Tmax, how is it that T1 = 1 in order to rearrange for T2 = e^u0?

I'm sure the answer is very obvious but I really can't see what is going on.
 
Hi Oakwater! :smile:

(have a mu: µ and a theta: θ and try using the X2 and X2 icons just above the Reply box :wink:)

It must be a misprint for T2 = T1e-µθ

T2 = e-µθ isn't dimensionally possible :redface:

esomething has to be a dimensionless number.​
 
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