Bit foggy on this trig question

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To find arccos(cos(2π)), it's essential to recognize that cos(2π) equals 1. The arccos function is the inverse of the cosine function, meaning arccos(1) will yield the angle whose cosine is 1. Since the cosine of 0 is also 1, arccos(1) equals 0, but it can also be expressed as 2π, as both angles correspond to the same cosine value. Understanding that arccos(cos(x)) equals x for any x between 0 and π clarifies the relationship between these functions. Thus, arccos(1) can be derived as 0 or 2π, depending on the context.
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Homework Statement


arccos(cos2\Pi)




The Attempt at a Solution


cos of 2\Pi =1
how do I get the arccos of 1? Without a calculator.
Thanks
 
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You have to use either some log tables or your memory. More specifically if you know how to sketch the graph of a cos function then you would know immediately that \cos (2\pi n) = 1 where n is any integer (including 0).
 
Yes, I know how to get cos of 2\Pi. It equals 1
I don't know how to get arccos of 1.
Could you help me with that?

I know that, for instance arccos \stackrel{\Pi}{4} = \stackrel{1}{\sqrt{2}}

But how do I figure out arccos 1.

I know it = 0 but I can't see how to derive this
 
arccos is inverse function of cos. So If you know that cos(2п)=1 you will know that arccos(1)=2п. Do you understand now?

Regards.

P.S arccos(1 / √2) = п/4
 
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For any number, x, between 0 and \pi, arccos(cos(x))= x. That follows from the very definition of "arccos".
 
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