spaghetti3451
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I have a question regarding the parameters that reduces the Planck distribution to the Rayleigh-Jeans distribution.
According to the Planck distribution, the average energy in a unit volume in the \nu frequency mode of a blackbody radiation field is <U> = \frac{h\nu}{e \frac{h\nu}{KT} - 1}. And , I see that in both the limits \nu \rightarrow 0 and T \rightarrow \infty, the expression reduces to the classical Rayleigh-Jeans form.
Are these two limits a part of the correspondence principle?
According to the Planck distribution, the average energy in a unit volume in the \nu frequency mode of a blackbody radiation field is <U> = \frac{h\nu}{e \frac{h\nu}{KT} - 1}. And , I see that in both the limits \nu \rightarrow 0 and T \rightarrow \infty, the expression reduces to the classical Rayleigh-Jeans form.
Are these two limits a part of the correspondence principle?