- #1
Vicol
- 14
- 0
Hello everyone,
In Born-Oppenheimer approximation there is one step, when you divide your wavefunction into two pieces - first dependent on nuclei coordinates only and second dependent on electron coordinates only (the nuclei coordinates are treated as parameter here). The "global" wavefunction is a product of these two. Why "almost" independent movement of nuclei and electrons determine form of global wavefunction as product of electron and nuclei wavefunctions? What is mathematical proof of that?
In Born-Oppenheimer approximation there is one step, when you divide your wavefunction into two pieces - first dependent on nuclei coordinates only and second dependent on electron coordinates only (the nuclei coordinates are treated as parameter here). The "global" wavefunction is a product of these two. Why "almost" independent movement of nuclei and electrons determine form of global wavefunction as product of electron and nuclei wavefunctions? What is mathematical proof of that?