Boundary Value Problem; Eigenvalues and Eigenfunctions

Pinedas42
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Homework Statement


Find the eigenvalues and eigenfunction for the BVP:
y'''+[itex]\lambda[/itex]^2y'=0

y(0)=0, y'(0)=0, y'(L)=0

Homework Equations



m^3+[itex]\lambda[/itex]m=0, auxiliary equation

The Attempt at a Solution



3 cases [itex]\lambda[/itex]=0, [itex]\lambda[/itex]<0, [itex]\lambda[/itex]>0
this first 2 give y=0 always, as the only solution.

[itex]\lambda[/itex]>0 solution attempt

m^3+[itex]\lambda[/itex]^2m=0
m(m^2+[itex]\lambda[/itex]^2)=0
roots:
m=0, and +/- [itex]\lambda[/itex]i

general solution:
y=A+Bcos([itex]\lambda[/itex]x)+Csin([itex]\lambda[/itex]x)
Where A, B, and C are constants

y'=-B[itex]\lambda[/itex]sin([itex]\lambda[/itex]x)+C[itex]\lambda[/itex]cos([itex]\lambda[/itex]x)

y(0)=0 gives
0=A+B, or A=-B

y'(0)=0 gives
0=[itex]\lambda[/itex]C, so C=0

y'(L)=0 gives
0=-[itex]\lambda[/itex]Bsin([itex]\lambda[/itex]L)

The only solution I find from these data is y=0, which seems kind of off since no eigenfunction/values are found. From what I've read/studied so far when [itex]\lambda[/itex]>0 there is always an eigen function/value.

The alternative I've considered is to consider B≠0 and having the eigenvalue be
[itex]\lambda[/itex]L=n[itex]\pi[/itex] giving [itex]\lambda[/itex]=n[itex]\pi[/itex]/L

which then gives the eigen function
y=A+Bcos((n[itex]\pi[/itex]x)/L)
 
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Pinedas42 said:

Homework Statement


Find the eigenvalues and eigenfunction for the BVP:
y'''+[itex]\lambda[/itex]^2y'=0

y(0)=0, y'(0)=0, y'(L)=0

Homework Equations



m^3+[itex]\lambda[/itex]m=0, auxiliary equation

The Attempt at a Solution



3 cases [itex]\lambda[/itex]=0, [itex]\lambda[/itex]<0, [itex]\lambda[/itex]>0
this first 2 give y=0 always, as the only solution.

[itex]\lambda[/itex]>0 solution attempt

m^3+[itex]\lambda[/itex]^2m=0
m(m^2+[itex]\lambda[/itex]^2)=0
roots:
m=0, and +/- [itex]\lambda[/itex]i

general solution:
y=A+Bcos([itex]\lambda[/itex]x)+Csin([itex]\lambda[/itex]x)
Where A, B, and C are constants

y'=-B[itex]\lambda[/itex]sin([itex]\lambda[/itex]x)+C[itex]\lambda[/itex]cos([itex]\lambda[/itex]x)

y(0)=0 gives
0=A+B, or A=-B

y'(0)=0 gives
0=[itex]\lambda[/itex]C, so C=0

y'(L)=0 gives
0=-[itex]\lambda[/itex]Bsin([itex]\lambda[/itex]L)

The only solution I find from these data is y=0, which seems kind of off since no eigenfunction/values are found.

That's wrong, your next paragraph is the correct procedure
The alternative I've considered is to consider B≠0 and having the eigenvalue be
[itex]\lambda[/itex]L=n[itex]\pi[/itex] giving [itex]\lambda[/itex]=n[itex]\pi[/itex]/L

which then gives the eigen function
y=A+Bcos((n[itex]\pi[/itex]x)/L)

And since A = -B, you have ##B(-1+\cos(\frac {n\pi x} L))##. You could leave off the B and write ##y_n =-1+\cos(\frac {n\pi x} L)##.
 
OK, thank you!
I had thought that there always had to be a function for [itex]\lambda[/itex]>0, but I wasn't sure and I couldn't find any literature specifically mentioning it.
 

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