Calculate Magnetic Induction in Cylindrical Hole w/ Uniform Current

Crazy Gnome
Messages
13
Reaction score
0
Question: An infinite cylindrical wire with radius 2R caries a uniform current density J=Jz, except in an infinite cylindrical hole parallel to the wires axis. The hole has a radius of R and is tangent to the exterior of the wire. Calculate the magnetic induction B everywhere inside the hole.

It would seem to me that according to Ampere's law B inside the cavity would just be 0 because there is no enclosed current. What am I missing? And the reason I doubt my answer so much is that he then wants us to plot B as a function of radius in the hole and I can't imagine plotting 0 was his intention.
 
Physics news on Phys.org


Crazy Gnome said:
Question: An infinite cylindrical wire with radius 2R caries a uniform current density J=Jz, except in an infinite cylindrical hole parallel to the wires axis. The hole has a radius of R and is tangent to the exterior of the wire. Calculate the magnetic induction B everywhere inside the hole.

It would seem to me that according to Ampere's law B inside the cavity would just be 0 because there is no enclosed current. What am I missing? And the reason I doubt my answer so much is that he then wants us to plot B as a function of radius in the hole and I can't imagine plotting 0 was his intention.

You are correct in doubting your answer, which is wrong.
Here's a hint to solving the problem: imagine how you can produce that hole by superposing two cylinders.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top