Calculate potential form poisson equation

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on calculating the electric potential inside a sphere with a specific charge density using the Poisson equation. The charge density is given as ρ = ρ0 * (r/R), and the Laplacian in spherical coordinates is derived. The user expresses confusion about integrating the equation and determining the correct boundaries for integration. Key points include the suggestion to simplify the problem by treating derivatives as ordinary derivatives due to symmetry, and the importance of applying physical constraints to solve for integration constants. Ultimately, the solution must remain valid as r approaches zero, leading to the conclusion that certain constants must equal zero.
Kosta1234
Messages
45
Reaction score
1
Homework Statement
Calculate potential form poisson equation
Relevant Equations
## \Delta \psi = -\frac { \rho _ 0}{\varepsilon _0 } ##
Hi.

I've the following charge density: ## \rho = \rho_0 \frac {r}{R} ##
I'm getting a trouble to calculate the potential inside a sphere of radius R located in the center of axis with the given charge density (using poisson equation):

the Laplacian in spherical coordinates is: ##\frac {1}{r^2} \frac {\partial}{\partial r} (r^2 \cdot \partial \frac {\psi}{\partial r}) = - \frac {\rho _ 0 r}{R \varepsilon _0 } ##
(the components theta and phi are canceled because of the symmetry of the problem.

so outside of the sphere it's pretty easy:
$$ \frac {1}{r^2} \frac {\partial}{\partial r} (r^2 \cdot \partial \frac {\psi}{\partial r}) = $$
is a solution of form $$ \psi = \frac {a}{r} + b $$
and ## b = 0 ## because the potential is infinity is zero. I can find out the ## a ## using ## a = kq = k \int dq dV ##
so that ## \psi = \frac {\pi k \rho _ R^3}{r} ## where ## r>R ## .

inside
So I'm getting little bit confused to know the solution form of the equation:
$$ \frac {1}{r^2} \frac {\partial}{\partial r} (r^2 \cdot \partial \frac {\psi}{\partial r}) = - \frac {\rho _ 0 r}{R \varepsilon _0 } $$

I tried to figure out that ## \psi ## must be proportional to ## r^3 ## with this way, and tried to use different Laplacian in some website that I found:
$$\frac {\partial ^ 2 \psi}{\partial r^2} + \frac {2}{r} \cdot \frac {\partial \psi}{\partial r} = - \rho _ 0 \frac {r}{R \varepsilon _ 0 } $$
using those I could substitute ## \psi '' = u' ## and ## \psi ' = u ## and to solve the equation using second order order differential equation using the example of this website at page 5 ( http://www.math.psu.edu/tseng/class/Math251/Notes-2nd%20order%20ODE%20pt1.pdf)

my equation form is: ## u' +\frac {2}{r} u =- \rho _ 0 \frac {r}{R \varepsilon _ 0 } ##
## u' +p(r) u = g(r) ##

so I've reached that the integrating factor is ## \mu (r) = e^{\int p(r)dt} = r^2 ##
and the answer for ## u ## contains an integral:

$$u(r)= \frac {\int \mu(r) \cdot g(r) dr}{\mu(r)}$$
and another integral to calculate the potential:
$$ \psi (r) = \int u(r) dr $$
what are my integration bounderies? are they in both of the cases 0 to R?
or just the second one? and why?

thank you.
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
.
 
Kosta1234 said:
Hi.

I've the following charge density: ## \rho = \rho_0 \frac {r}{R} ##
I'm getting a trouble to calculate the potential inside a sphere of radius R located in the center of axis with the given charge density (using poisson equation):

the Laplacian in spherical coordinates is: ##\frac {1}{r^2} \frac {\partial}{\partial r} (r^2 \cdot \partial \frac {\psi}{\partial r}) = - \frac {\rho _ 0 r}{R \varepsilon _0 } ##
(the components theta and phi are canceled because of the symmetry of the problem.

so outside of the sphere it's pretty easy:
$$ \frac {1}{r^2} \frac {\partial}{\partial r} (r^2 \cdot \partial \frac {\psi}{\partial r}) = $$
is a solution of form $$ \psi = \frac {a}{r} + b $$
and ## b = 0 ## because the potential is infinity is zero. I can find out the ## a ## using ## a = kq = k \int dq dV ##
so that ## \psi = \frac {\pi k \rho _ R^3}{r} ## where ## r>R ## .

inside
So I'm getting little bit confused to know the solution form of the equation:
$$ \frac {1}{r^2} \frac {\partial}{\partial r} (r^2 \cdot \partial \frac {\psi}{\partial r}) = - \frac {\rho _ 0 r}{R \varepsilon _0 } $$

Why not integrate that equation, rather than differentiating the LHS?
 
Actually I tried that, but I didn't knew what I'm doing:

$$ \frac {\partial}{\partial r } (r^2 \cdot \frac {\partial \psi}{\partial r})=- \frac {\rho_0 r^3}{R \varepsilon _0} $$
$$ \int \partial \psi = \int_0^R ( \frac {1}{r^2} \int_0^R - \frac {\rho_0 r^3}{R \varepsilon _0} dr) dr $$
I'm getting confused because of the two integrals and their bounderies.
 
Kosta1234 said:
Actually I tried that, but I didn't knew what I'm doing:

$$ \frac {\partial}{\partial r } (r^2 \cdot \frac {\partial \psi}{\partial r})=- \frac {\rho_0 r^3}{R \varepsilon _0} $$
$$ \int \partial \psi = \int_0^R ( \frac {1}{r^2} \int_0^R - \frac {\rho_0 r^3}{R \varepsilon _0} dr) dr $$
I'm getting confused because of the two integrals and their bounderies.

You're overthinking this. Note that since you have already by symmetry shown that the potential is a function of ##r## only, you could replace the partial derivatives with ordinary derivatives.

In any case, the integral of ##r^3## is ##\frac{r^4}{4} + C## the last time I tried it!

And the integral of ##\frac{d}{dr}f(r)## is ##f(r) + C##.
 
Well I ment to write:
$$ \int d \psi = \int_0^R ( \frac {1}{r^2} \int_0^R - \frac {\rho_0 r^3}{R \varepsilon _0} dr) dr $$ If that what you ment.also, here is what I'm getting:

$$ \psi = - \int \frac {1}{r^2} ( \cdot \frac {\rho_0 r^4}{4R \varepsilon _0} + C ) dr $$

** Do I've to work with bounderies to r (## r \in [0.R] ## ) or to add constant. in the next integral I will get a second constant

$$ \psi = - \int \frac {1}{r^2} ( \cdot \frac {\rho_0 r^4}{4R \varepsilon _0} + C ) dr $$
$$ \psi = - \int \frac {1}{r^2} (\frac {\rho_0 r^4}{4R \varepsilon _0} + \frac {C}{r^2} dr )$$
$$ \psi = - \int ( \frac {\rho_0 r^2}{4R \varepsilon _0} + \frac {C}{r^2} dr )$$
$$ \psi = - ( \frac {\rho_0 r^3}{12R \varepsilon _0} - \frac {C}{r} ) + D$$
$$ \psi = \frac {C}{r} - \frac {\rho_0 r^3}{12R \varepsilon _0} +D $$

so I now have two constants..

checking what happening in ## r = R ## will not solve this to me.. so where I'm wrong?
 
Kosta1234 said:
Well I ment to write:
$$ \int d \psi = \int_0^R ( \frac {1}{r^2} \int_0^R - \frac {\rho_0 r^3}{R \varepsilon _0} dr) dr $$ If that what you ment.also, here is what I'm getting ...

You are really making this difficult. For example:

Kosta1234 said:
Actually I tried that, but I didn't knew what I'm doing:

$$ \frac {\partial}{\partial r } (r^2 \cdot \frac {\partial \psi}{\partial r})=- \frac {\rho_0 r^3}{R \varepsilon _0} $$

From this you should be able simply to write down that:

$$r^2 \cdot \frac {\partial \psi}{\partial r} = - \frac {\rho_0 r^4}{4R \varepsilon _0} + C$$

And, then integrate again. You can use physical constraints and boundary conditions to determine constants like ##C##.

With integrals of the form ##r^n##, you can just write down the answers.

Note also that inside the sphere, the solution must be valid for ##r \rightarrow 0##, hence in this case you must have ##C = 0##.
 
thank you.
 
Back
Top