Calculating Electrostatic Pressure from Metal Sphere

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on calculating the electrostatic pressure exerted by a charged metal sphere, focusing on the force between its hemispheres. The initial calculation resulted in zero force due to symmetry, leading to confusion about the integration limits for the angle theta. It was clarified that the theta integral should range from 0 to π/2 to avoid double counting points on the sphere. This adjustment ensures that only the northern hemisphere is considered, aligning with the principles outlined in Griffiths' textbook. Ultimately, the net force exerted by the sphere on itself is confirmed to be zero, reflecting Newton's third law.
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I have a metal sphere with the net charge q. And I'm trying to calculate the force that southern hemisphere exerts to northern hemisphere... and I get 0.

now, the electrostatic "pressure" is
\mathbf f = \sigma \mathbf E = (q/4\pi R^2) (q/4\pi \epsilon_0 r^2) \mathbf {e_r}

due to the symmetry, the force will point at z direction, so integrating only the z component of "pressure" over the northern hemisphere should do it, right?

\int f_z dA = \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \int_0^{2\pi} (q/4\pi R^2) (q/4\pi \epsilon_0 R^2) Rcos(\theta) R^2 sin(\theta) d\phi d\theta = 0?

I found out that this's a question from Griffiths', and the answer manual says the \theta integral should be within [0,\pi/2], not [-\pi/2, \pi/2].

Why is that?
 
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It is the same reason that an integral over all space will have phi from 0 to 2 pi and theta from 0 to pi.

It has to do with not double calculating a section of the sphere, not passing over it twice.
 
You're only integrating over the top half of of the sphere, not the whole thing, so your theta integration should be truncated to only that side.

What you actually found is that the net force on the entire sphere that it exerts on itself is zero, which is a nice statement of Newton's third law.
 
gulsen said:
I found out that this's a question from Griffiths', and the answer manual says the \theta integral should be within [0,\pi/2], not [-\pi/2, \pi/2].

Why is that?
Just to restate what Crosson and StatMechGuy already explained: Realize that your integral over \phi goes from 0 to 2 \pi, so counting negative values of \theta counts those points twice. The point (\theta, \phi) = (\theta, 0) is the same point as (\theta, \phi) = (-\theta, \pi).
 
In classical electrodymamics BY jackson this is explained... clearly
 
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