I am a Nuclear Reactor Mechanic in the US Navy, and I have run into a disagreement between my peers and I on the proper use of torque wrenches. The situation is simple... (NOTE: these numbers are arbitrary for consistency) You have a dial type torque wrench with a 1 foot handle and you apply 6NM of force to the end of the handle (assume proper counter-force from here on in) and you torque the stud to 100ftlbs. Now you take another torque wrench with a 2 foot handle and you only have to apply 3NM to the end of the wrench to obtain 100ftlbs on the stud. now the dilemma... if you were to place your hand 1 foot in on the 2 foot torque wrench, would you still apply 6NM to obtain 100ftlbs on the stud? (Assume the wrench is a solid piece of steel alloy that does not give and has a 100% energy transfer efficiency) My theory is, the force applied 1 foot in is still applied, somewhat, to the extra 1foot on the handle, and with 6NM applied to the 1foot position you might get more like 105 or 110ftlbs of torque applied to the stud instead of 100ftlbs.