Calculating Terminal Velocity with Air Resistance: A Case Study in Free Fall

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on calculating terminal velocity while considering air resistance in free fall, referencing Newton's second law and the drag equation. It highlights that as an object's speed increases, the drag force becomes equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to gravitational force, leading to terminal velocity. The equation for terminal velocity is derived from setting the net force to zero, where drag force equals gravitational force. A correction is made regarding the use of vectors, clarifying that the minus sign in the force equations indicates direction, not magnitude. The conversation emphasizes the importance of accurately applying vector principles in physics calculations.
eehiram
Messages
116
Reaction score
0
My textbook source is:
Fundamentals of Physics, 6th edition, by Halliday, Resnick, Walker

According to Newton's well known 2nd Law of Motion:
Fnet = ma

In chapter 2, in the case of free fall, the Fgrav = mg,
where g = -9.8 m/s2, assuming that movement along the axis of y is positive going upward from the Earth's surface.

However, in order to make a slighter more elaborate calculation, let us attempt include to incorporate air resistance, as in chapter 6:

If we have the following values to insert into the Drag equation:

Mass density of air = ρ = 1.29 kg / m3

Object speed in m/s = v

Drag coefficient = Cdrag = needs to be looked up or calculated

Effective Cross-sectional Area in m2 = A



The drag equation in chapter 6, section 3 appears to be:

Fdrag = (1/2) ρv2CdragA


As air resistance increases with v2, the Fdrag reaches a value equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to Fgrav.

Then terminal velocity might be attained, and the object's free fall may cease to accelerate.

Terminal velocity vterminal can be solved for by calculating the case of Fnet = 0 = Fdrag + Fgrav

Fdrag = -Fgrav
(1/2) ρv2CdragA = -mg
etcetera...

Is this correct? This is not a homework assignment question.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Notice that if you try to solve your last equation for v, you'll end up taking the square root of a negative number. You can get rid of that pesky minus sign by going back to your net force equation and recognizing that it's a vector equation:

$$\vec F_{net} = 0 \\
\vec F_{drag} + \vec F_{grav} = 0 \\
\vec F_{drag} = - \vec F_{grav}$$

The last equation says that the two forces are opposite in direction (minus sign) and equal in magnitude:

$$F_{drag} = F_{grav}$$

This equation is for the magnitudes, so we drop the minus sign.
 
Yes, you are right. I should have used vectors in my initial post. Thank you for correcting my mistake.
 
Thread 'Motional EMF in Faraday disc, co-rotating magnet axial mean flux'
So here is the motional EMF formula. Now I understand the standard Faraday paradox that an axis symmetric field source (like a speaker motor ring magnet) has a magnetic field that is frame invariant under rotation around axis of symmetry. The field is static whether you rotate the magnet or not. So far so good. What puzzles me is this , there is a term average magnetic flux or "azimuthal mean" , this term describes the average magnetic field through the area swept by the rotating Faraday...
Back
Top