Calculating the eigenvalue of orbital angular momentum

In summary, the conversation was about calculating the orbital angular momentum of the state l=1 and m=-1 using the operator for angular momentum squared. The wave function Y1,-1 was operated on and the resulting expression was found to be zero, but the correct answer should be 2hbar^2. It was then realized that the cosine term in the expression was actually -sin^2(theta) and not cos^2(theta), leading to the correct result.
  • #1
TheBlueDot
16
2
Hello,

I'm trying to calculate the measurement of the orbital angular momentum of the state l=1 and m = -1. The operator for the angular momentum squared is
## L^2 = -\hbar (\frac{1}{sin\theta}(\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta}(sin\theta\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta})) +\frac{1}{sin\theta^2}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial\phi^2}) ##,

which expands to
## L^2 = -\hbar (\frac{1}{sin\theta}(\frac{\partial sin\theta}{\partial \theta}\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta}+sin\theta \frac{\partial^2}{\partial \theta^2}) +\frac{1}{sin\theta^2}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial\phi^2}) ##

When operate this on the wave function ##Y_{1,-1} = csin\theta e^{-i\phi}##, I got

##Y_{1,-1}*(\frac{cos^2\theta}{sin\theta} -\frac{sin^2\theta}{sin\theta}-\frac{1}{sin\theta})##,

which is zero. The answer should be ##2\hbar^2##.

If the cosine term is zero, then I'll get the right result.

Please help!

Thanks
 
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  • #2
TheBlueDot said:
Hello,

I'm trying to calculate the measurement of the orbital angular momentum of the state l=1 and m = -1. The operator for the angular momentum squared is
## L^2 = -\hbar (\frac{1}{sin\theta}(\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta}(sin\theta\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta})) +\frac{1}{sin\theta^2}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial\phi^2}) ##,

which expands to
## L^2 = -\hbar (\frac{1}{sin\theta}(\frac{\partial sin\theta}{\partial \theta}\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta}+sin\theta \frac{\partial^2}{\partial \theta^2}) +\frac{1}{sin\theta^2}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial\phi^2}) ##

When operate this on the wave function ##Y_{1,-1} = csin\theta e^{-i\phi}##, I got

##Y_{1,-1}*(\frac{cos^2\theta}{sin\theta} -\frac{sin^2\theta}{sin\theta}-\frac{1}{sin\theta})##,

which is zero. The answer should be ##2\hbar^2##.

If the cosine term is zero, then I'll get the right result.

Please help!

Thanks

##\frac{cos^2(\theta)}{sin(\theta)} - \frac{sin^2(\theta)}{sin(\theta)} - \frac{1}{sin(\theta)} = \frac{1-sin^2(\theta) - sin^2(\theta) - 1}{sin(\theta)} = \frac{-2 sin^2(\theta)}{sin(\theta)} = -2 sin(\theta)##
 
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  • #3
stevendaryl said:
##\frac{cos^2(\theta)}{sin(\theta)} - \frac{sin^2(\theta)}{sin(\theta)} - \frac{1}{sin(\theta)} = \frac{1-sin^2(\theta) - sin^2(\theta) - 1}{sin(\theta)} = \frac{-2 sin^2(\theta)}{sin(\theta)} = -2 sin(\theta)##
@stevendaryl,
Thanks for your response. I feel silly now. I looked at the ##sin^2(\theta) -1 ## and thought it was ##cos^2(\theta)##.
 
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  • #4
It doesn't say ##\ \ \sin^2(\theta) -1\ ##, but ##\ \ - \sin^2(\theta) -1\ \ ## :rolleyes:
 

1. How is the eigenvalue of orbital angular momentum calculated?

The eigenvalue of orbital angular momentum is calculated using the quantum mechanical operator for angular momentum, which is represented by the symbol L. The eigenvalue, denoted by the symbol l, is the set of allowed values for the magnitude of orbital angular momentum in a given quantum state.

2. What is the significance of the eigenvalue of orbital angular momentum?

The eigenvalue of orbital angular momentum is significant because it determines the energy and angular momentum of an electron in an atom. It also plays a crucial role in determining the shape and orientation of atomic orbitals.

3. How does the eigenvalue of orbital angular momentum relate to the quantum number for angular momentum?

The eigenvalue of orbital angular momentum, l, is related to the quantum number for angular momentum, also known as the azimuthal quantum number, by the equation l = √(l(l+1)), where l is the quantum number. This relationship allows for the determination of the allowed values of l for a given quantum state.

4. Can the eigenvalue of orbital angular momentum be negative?

Yes, the eigenvalue of orbital angular momentum can be negative. In quantum mechanics, negative values are allowed for certain physical quantities, including angular momentum. The negative sign indicates the direction of the angular momentum vector, with a negative value representing a clockwise rotation.

5. How does the eigenvalue of orbital angular momentum affect the energy levels of an atom?

The eigenvalue of orbital angular momentum contributes to the total energy of an electron in an atom. The allowed values of l correspond to different energy levels, with larger values of l corresponding to higher energy levels. This means that the eigenvalue of orbital angular momentum has a direct impact on the energy levels and stability of an atom.

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