Calculating work on an electron on an equipotential surface

AI Thread Summary
An electron on a metallic equipotential surface experiences no net force due to the lack of potential difference, leading to no spontaneous movement. When an external force moves the electron, the work done by this force can be calculated using the equation W_app = m_ead, where non-zero acceleration is required for non-zero work. If the change in kinetic energy (ΔK) is zero, the applied force must balance any opposing forces, such as friction, resulting in an effectively zero net force. However, in practical scenarios, there are always additional forces at play, making ideal conditions rare. Thus, while theoretically possible, achieving zero work done in real-world applications is complicated by these factors.
AdrianMachin
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This is not a homework, but a question formed in my mind after reading my textbook.

Homework Statement


Consider an electron (a charged particle) on a metallic equipotential surface. We know that all the points on the surface are equipotential, thus there will be no force on charged particles on the surface and no tendency to move on their own. We move the electron form point i to point f with our applied force. Find the equation for the work on the electron from the applied force.

Homework Equations


We know from the equation (I) in the attached picture that the work done by the field will be zero because the field lines are prependicular to the surface, thus making the dot product zero.

The Attempt at a Solution


From the equations (II) and (III) we see that the work by the applied force is equal to the changes in the electron's kinetic energy, right? But will our work be zero if ΔK=0? Why? Does it cancel with the work from friction? How?
 

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AdrianMachin said:
But will our work be zero if ΔK=0?
Yes.
If ΔK=0 and there is no friction, how great a force was needed/used?
 
haruspex said:
Yes.
If ΔK=0 and there is no friction, how great a force was needed/used?
What do you mean? The magnitude of Fapp?
I don't know, that's why I asked this question.
 
AdrianMachin said:
What do you mean? The magnitude of Fapp?
I don't know, that's why I asked this question.
Well, do you think 1N would have got it there? 0.1N? 0.00000000001N? Time is immaterial.
 
haruspex said:
Well, do you think 1N would have got it there? 0.1N? 0.00000000001N? Time is immaterial.
I think that makes a paradox because if there are no other forces than the electric force caused by the field which is perpendicular to the surface and the applied force, then there is an acceleration based on Newton's second law, so ΔK cannot be zero...
 
AdrianMachin said:
I think that makes a paradox because if there are no other forces than the electric force caused by the field which is perpendicular to the surface and the applied force, then there is an acceleration based on Newton's second law, so ΔK cannot be zero...
Yes, but it can be arbitrarily small, so effectively zero.
 
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haruspex said:
Yes, but it can be arbitrarily small, so effectively zero.
Well, I don't know the answer to the question you asked.
 
AdrianMachin said:
Well, I don't know the answer to the question you asked.
I answered it in post #6. The force is effectively zero.
 
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haruspex said:
I answered it in post #6. The force is effectively zero.
Thanks.
Please correct my following conclusions if it is wrong:

The formula for the work done by the applied force on the electron would be ##W_{app} = m_ead##, so we must move it with a non-zero acceleration in order to have a non-zero ##W_{app}##, and from Newton's second law we'll have ##a=\frac {F_{app}-f_k} {m_e}## so the ##F_{app} \neq f_k## condition must exist.
 
  • #10
AdrianMachin said:
Thanks.
Please correct my following conclusions if it is wrong:

The formula for the work done by the applied force on the electron would be ##W_{app} = m_ead##, so we must move it with a non-zero acceleration in order to have a non-zero ##W_{app}##, and from Newton's second law we'll have ##a=\frac {F_{app}-f_k} {m_e}## so the ##F_{app} \neq f_k## condition must exist.
The real world is never ideal. There is always some friction, some extraneous field, whatever. In most academic physics problems you can idealise matters without great consequence, but sometimes it leads to paradoxes.
Yes, if the particle is ever to get to where it is going it must be given a nonzero speed, but there is no time constraint, so there is no nonzero lower limit to the speed. Within any reasonable margin of error, the minimum speed is zero.
 
  • #11
haruspex said:
Yes, if the particle is ever to get to where it is going it must be given a nonzero speed, but there is no time constraint, so there is no nonzero lower limit to the speed. Within any reasonable margin of error, the minimum speed is zero.

Excuse me, non-zero speed or acceleration?
 
  • #12
AdrianMachin said:
Excuse me, non-zero speed or acceleration?
Both.
 
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